The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is newly diagnosed with conversion disorder. The client begins crying and states, 'The health care provider must think I’m crazy because of my diagnosis.' What is the best response to the client?
- A. Conversion disorder is a diagnosis that acknowledges your symptoms are real, even if there isn’t a physical cause
- B. I am very sorry to hear this, but are you sure that’s what the provider meant? Maybe you misunderstood
- C. The health care provider is probably wrong. I’ll give you the information to contact my health care provider
- D. Why do you think you were diagnosed with conversion disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reassuring the client that conversion disorder validates real symptoms without a physical cause reduces stigma and clarifies the diagnosis. Other responses dismiss, question, or deflect the client’s concerns.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has subclavian central venous access. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent the spread of infection to this client?
- A. Frequent hand hygiene
- B. No artificial nails
- C. Use of chlorhexidine bath wipes
- D. Wearing personal protective equipment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent hand hygiene is the most effective intervention to prevent infection in central venous access, reducing pathogen transmission. No artificial nails and chlorhexidine wipes are supportive, but hand hygiene is primary. PPE is situational.
The nurse is caring for an adult who has atrial fibrillation and osteoporosis. Atenolol is prescribed. The nurse should expect that this medication was prescribed to:
- A. decrease elevated blood pressure.
- B. decrease inflammation.
- C. relieve pain.
- D. slow the heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, is used in atrial fibrillation to control heart rate, reducing rapid ventricular response.
The health care provider prescribes a multivitamin regimen that includes thiamine for a client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse. The nurse is aware that thiamine is given to this client population for which purpose?
- A. To lower the blood alcohol level
- B. To prevent gross tremors
- C. To prevent Wernicke encephalopathy
- D. To treat seizures related to acute alcohol withdrawal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiamine prevents Wernicke encephalopathy, a neurological disorder from thiamine deficiency common in chronic alcoholism. It does not lower alcohol levels, prevent tremors, or treat seizures directly.
The nurse in the pediatric unit is collecting data from several newly admitted clients. Which finding should the nurse follow up for possible abuse and mandatory reporting?
- A. A 2-month-old who rolled off the changing table and is now lethargic
- B. A 3-month-old with flat bluish discoloration on the buttock that the mother says has been present since birth
- C. A 3-year-old with forehead bruises that the mother says resulted from running into a table
- D. A 4-year-old who pulled boiling water off the stove and has splatter burns on the arms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A 2-month-old cannot roll, and lethargy after a fall suggests possible non-accidental head trauma, requiring abuse investigation. Bluish buttock marks may be Mongolian spots (benign), and splatter burns are consistent with an accident.
The nurse is contributing to a staff education program about assessing the urinary system. Which statement by a nurse would indicate a correct understanding of the program?
- A. The bladder should be nontender and nonpalpable when it is empty
- B. Dark brown urine may indicate that the client has a urinary tract infection
- C. I should be able to palpate both kidneys regardless of the client’s abdominal girth
- D. I will assess for tenderness of the kidneys by performing blunt percussion over the client’s lower abdomen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An empty bladder is nontender and nonpalpable, indicating correct understanding. Dark brown urine suggests dehydration or other issues, not UTI; kidneys are not always palpable; and percussion is over the costovertebral angle, not lower abdomen.