Nokea
The nurse is reviewing the activated partial thromboplastin time for a patient receiving heparin. Which value indicates that the medication is within the therapeutic range?
- A. 2.5 to 9.5 minutes
- B. 9.5 to 11.3 seconds
- C. 1.5 to 2.0 times normal
- D. 2.0 to 3.0 times normal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (1.5 to 2.0 times normal) because the therapeutic range for heparin is typically considered to be 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value of activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This range ensures adequate anticoagulation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the therapeutic range for heparin. Option A provides a range in minutes, which is not a standard unit for aPTT measurement. Option B provides a range in seconds, which is too narrow for the therapeutic range of heparin. Option D provides a range in multiples of normal, but the upper limit of 3.0 times normal is higher than the typical upper limit of the therapeutic range for heparin.
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A nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should be aware of what main goal of care?
- A. Cure of the disease
- B. Enhancing quality of life
- C. Controlling symptoms
- D. Palliation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cure of the disease. The main goal of care for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is to achieve a cure whenever possible. This is because Hodgkin lymphoma is a potentially curable cancer with appropriate treatment. Achieving a cure means eradicating the cancer cells completely and preventing its recurrence in the future. This is the most desirable outcome for the patient's long-term health and well-being.
Incorrect choices:
B: Enhancing quality of life - While improving the patient's quality of life is important, the primary goal in treating Hodgkin lymphoma is to cure the disease.
C: Controlling symptoms - Symptom management is important in providing comfort to the patient, but the main goal is to cure the disease.
D: Palliation - Palliative care focuses on relieving symptoms and improving quality of life in patients with advanced or incurable diseases. For Hodgkin lymphoma, the main goal is to aim for a cure rather than palliation.
An older client asks the nurse why 'people my age' have weaker immune systems than younger people. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bone marrow produces more blood cells as you age.'
- B. You may have decreased levels of circulating platelets.'
- C. You have lower levels of plasma proteins in the blood.'
- D. Lymphocytes become more reactive to antigens.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
- As we age, there is a decrease in the production of plasma proteins, which are essential for immune function.
- Lower levels of plasma proteins can lead to a weaker immune response.
- This decline in plasma proteins can make older individuals more susceptible to infections.
- Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the impact of aging on immune system function.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae in her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, the nurse should perform what action?
- A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
- B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
- C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
- D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. Petechiae and ecchymoses indicate potential thrombocytopenia in a leukemia patient.
2. Checking the patient's platelet level will confirm thrombocytopenia and guide treatment.
3. Low platelet levels can lead to bleeding complications, hence the importance of monitoring.
4. Prompt intervention based on platelet level results can prevent worsening complications.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Initiating measures to prevent VTE is not directly related to the patient's current presentation of ecchymoses and petechiae.
C: Placing the patient on protective isolation is not indicated for thrombocytopenia.
D: Ambulating the patient may be beneficial for circulation but does not address the underlying issue of potential thrombocytopenia.
An otherwise healthy 18-year-old female is diagnosed with high-risk neuroblastoma after presenting with fatigue and bony pain. Imaging findings demonstrate a left adrenal mass with multiple osseous metastases. She successfully completes standard therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma, but experiences several episodes of disease recurrence and ultimately dies of her disease 10 years after her initial diagnosis. During her treatment, her tumor was sent for molecular analysis. Of the following, what molecular aberration was most likely to have been detected?
- A. ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion
- B. PTPN11 mutation
- C. ATRX mutation
- D. WT1 mutation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ATRX mutation. In neuroblastoma, ATRX mutations are associated with poor prognosis and high-risk disease. ATRX gene mutations are commonly found in cases with aggressive behavior and poor outcomes, such as in this case where the patient experienced disease recurrence and ultimately died. ATRX mutations are linked to chromosomal instability and telomere dysfunction, which can contribute to tumor progression and resistance to therapy.
A: ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion is more commonly associated with infantile fibrosarcoma and secretory breast carcinoma, not neuroblastoma.
B: PTPN11 mutations are typically seen in juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia and Noonan syndrome, not neuroblastoma.
D: WT1 mutations are more commonly found in Wilms tumor and acute myeloid leukemia, not neuroblastoma.
In summary, the ATRX mutation is the most likely molecular aberration detected in this patient with high-risk neuroblast
A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact?
- A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
- B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
- C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
- D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. This is because older age is a significant negative prognostic factor in acute myeloid leukemia (AML). As individuals age, their overall health and ability to tolerate aggressive treatments decline, leading to poorer outcomes. The survival rate of less than 2% for patients over 75 years old reflects the challenges of treating AML in this age group.
Choice A is incorrect because early diagnosis does not necessarily guarantee good outcomes in AML, especially in older adults where other factors play a significant role. Choice B is incorrect as the five-year survival rate of 50% does not apply to older adults with AML. Choice D is incorrect as survival rates in AML are influenced by various factors beyond just the patient's pre-illness health status.