Nokea
The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks’ gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
- A. “I have to fast the night before the test.”
- B. “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.”
- C. “I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.”
- D. “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.” This statement demonstrates understanding of the GCT procedure. The glucose challenge test involves drinking a sugary solution, followed by blood drawn 1 hour later to measure blood glucose levels. This timing is crucial for assessing the body's ability to metabolize glucose, which helps in diagnosing gestational diabetes.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: “I have to fast the night before the test.” - This is incorrect as fasting is not required for the GCT.
B: “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.” - This is incorrect as the GCT typically involves drinking a solution with a standardized amount of glucose, usually 50 g, not 100 g.
D: “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.” - This is unrelated to the GCT procedure and does not demonstrate understanding of the
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The nurse care plan for a patient with AIDS includes the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Maximize the patients fluid intake.
- B. Provide total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
- C. Keep the patients bed linens free of wrinkles.
- D. Provide the patient with snug clothing at all times.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep the patient's bed linens free of wrinkles. This intervention is important in preventing pressure ulcers, a common complication in patients with impaired skin integrity. Wrinkles in bed linens can create pressure points on the skin, leading to skin breakdown. By keeping the bed linens smooth and wrinkle-free, the patient's skin is protected from excessive pressure, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity.
A: Maximizing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity.
B: Providing total parenteral nutrition may support the patient's nutritional needs but does not specifically address the risk of impaired skin integrity.
D: Providing snug clothing can increase friction and pressure on the skin, potentially worsening the risk of impaired skin integrity.
A nurse is providing care to a group of patients.Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
- A. A child about to receive a normal saline enema
- B. A teenager about to receive loperamide for diarrhea
- C. An older patient with glaucoma about to receive an enema
- D. A middle-aged patient with myocardial infarction about to receive docusate sodium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an older patient with glaucoma is at risk for increased intraocular pressure when receiving an enema. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications like vision loss. The other choices do not pose immediate risks that require urgent intervention. A and B can wait for a brief period, while D is not time-sensitive in the context of a myocardial infarction. The priority is always given to the patient with the highest risk of harm if the intervention is delayed.
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
- A. For some patients, these recurrent infections constitute an age-related physiologic change.
- B. The patient would benefit from a temporary mobility restriction to facilitate healing.
- C. The patient needs to be assessed for nasopharyngeal cancer.
- D. Blood cultures should be drawn to rule out a systemic infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections.
Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function.
Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media.
Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age.
Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?
- A. 75 cells/mm3 of blood
- B. 200 cells/mm3 of blood
- C. 325 cells/mm3 of blood
- D. 450 cells/mm3 of blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS.
Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated.
Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
- A. Rate of growth
- B. Ability to cause death
- C. Size of cells
- D. Cell contents E) Ability to spread
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.