Nokea
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
- A. Higher steroid levels are needed during
- B. Malignant hypertension will occur.
- C. Respiratory failure will result.
- D. Malignant hyperthermia will result.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because abruptly stopping steroids can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. This can result in a sudden drop in cortisol levels, which are essential for various physiological functions. Patients on long-term steroid therapy need a gradual taper to allow the adrenal glands to resume cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the physiological effects of stopping steroids abruptly.
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A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
- A. Risk for transmission of infection
- B. Pain
- C. Health-seeking behaviours
- D. Ineffective sexuality pattern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. Space the administration every 4
- B. Use the drug for a short time only
- C. Decrease the piroxicam dosage
- D. Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
- A. Measure intake and output
- B. Perform the mini-mental status
- C. Use the Glasgow Coma scale examination
- D. Assess vital signs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure intake and output. Monitoring intake and output is crucial in assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in clients with neurologic deficits. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to neurological complications, so accurate monitoring is essential. Mini-mental status and Glasgow Coma scale are assessments of mental status, not electrolyte balance. Vital signs can provide some information, but intake and output measurement is more specific for assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
- A. Artane
- B. Elavil
- C. Benadryl
- D. Dopar
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for the nurse to take when setting up supplies for a client who requires a blood transfusion?
- A. Add any needed IV medication in the blood bag within one hour of planned infusion
- B. Obtain blood bag from laboratory and leave at room temperature for at least one hour prior to infusion
- C. Prime tubing of blood administration set with 0.9% NS solution, completely, filling filter
- D. Inadequate dietary intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because priming the tubing of the blood administration set with 0.9% NS solution ensures that there are no air bubbles in the tubing, preventing air embolism when the blood transfusion starts. This step also ensures that the blood flows smoothly and prevents clotting in the tubing.
Choice A is incorrect because adding IV medication in the blood bag can lead to incompatibility issues and should not be done without proper verification and approval.
Choice B is incorrect because leaving the blood bag at room temperature for an hour can lead to bacterial growth in the blood, increasing the risk of infection when transfused.
Choice D is unrelated to setting up supplies for a blood transfusion and does not address the immediate nursing intervention required in this situation.