Nokea
The nurse is reviewing the results of a client's phenytoin level that was drawn that morning. The nurse is preparing to discharge once the level is therapeutic. Which result indicates that this goal has been met?
- A. 3 mcg/mL (11.9 mcmol/L)
- B. 8 mcg/mL (31.7 mcmol/L)
- C. 15 mcg/mL (59.5 mcmol/L)
- D. 24 mcg/mL (95.2 mcmol/L)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic range for serum phenytoin levels is 10 to 20 mcg/mL (39.68 to 79.36 mcmol/L) in clients with normal serum albumin levels and renal function. A level below this range indicates that the client is not receiving sufficient medication and is at risk for seizure activity. In this case, the medication dose should be adjusted upward. A level above the therapeutic range indicates that the client is entering the toxic range and is at risk for toxic side effects of the medication.
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A home care nurse visits a child with a diagnosis of celiac disease. Which finding best indicates that a gluten-free diet is being maintained and has been effective?
- A. The child is free of diarrhea.
- B. The child is free of bloody stools.
- C. The child tolerates dietary wheat and rye.
- D. A balanced fluid and electrolyte status is noted on the laboratory results.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Watery diarrhea is a frequent clinical manifestation of celiac disease. The absence of diarrhea indicates effective treatment. Bloody stools are not associated with this disease. The grains of wheat and rye contain gluten and are not allowed. A balance of fluids and electrolytes does not necessarily demonstrate the improved status of celiac disease.
A client has begun medication therapy with betaxolol. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing the intended effect of therapy if which observation is noted?
- A. Edema present at 3+
- B. Weight loss of 5 pounds within 2 days
- C. Pulse rate increased from 58 to 74 beats/min
- D. Blood pressure decreased from 142 / 94mmHg to 128 / 82mmHg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Betaxolol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent used to lower blood pressure, relieve angina, or eliminate dysrhythmias. Side/adverse effects include bradycardia and symptoms of heart failure, such as weight gain and increased edema.
The nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a child with a diagnosis of strabismus of the left eye. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands the procedure for patching?
- A. I will place the patch on both eyes.
- B. I will place the patch on the left eye.
- C. I will place the patch on the right eye.
- D. I will alternate the patch from the right eye to the left eye every hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patching may be used for the treatment of strabismus to strengthen the weak eye. With this treatment, the good eye is patched; this encourages the child to use the weaker eye. The treatment is most successful when it is performed during the preschool years. The schedule for patching is individualized and prescribed by the ophthalmologist.
A woman in labor is receiving oxytocin by intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which finding indicates an adequate contraction pattern?
- A. One contraction per minute, with resultant cervical dilation
- B. Four contractions every 5 minutes, with resultant cervical dilation
- C. One contraction every 10 minutes, without resultant cervical dilation
- D. Three to 5 contractions in a 10-minute period, with resultant cervical dilation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The preferred oxytocin dosage is the minimal amount necessary to maintain an adequate contraction pattern characterized by 3 to 5 contractions in a 10-minute period, with resultant cervical dilation. If contractions are more frequent than every 2 minutes, contraction quality may be decreased.
The nurse is monitoring a male client with a spinal cord injury who is experiencing spinal shock. Which findings indicate that the spinal shock is resolving?
- A. Flaccidity
- B. Presence of a gag reflex
- C. Positive Babinski's reflex
- D. Development of hyperreflexia
- E. Return of the bulbocavernous reflex
- F. Return of reflex emptying of the bladder
Correct Answer: C,D,E,F
Rationale: Spinal shock is associated with acute injury to the spinal cord with temporary suppression of reflexes controlled by segments below the level of injury. It may last for 1 to 6 weeks. Indications that spinal shock is resolving include return of reflexes, development of hyperreflexia rather than flaccidity, and return of reflex emptying of the bladder. The return of the bulbocavernous reflex in male clients is also an early indicator of recovery from spinal shock. Babinski's reflex (dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stroked) is an early returning reflex. The gag reflex is not lost in spinal shock; therefore, its presence is not an indication of resolving spinal shock.