Nokea
The nurse is teaching a client about signs of postpartum hemorrhage. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. Passing a few clots is normal.
- B. Soaking one pad in an hour is concerning.
- C. Heavy bleeding stops within 48 hours.
- D. I should ignore mild cramping.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Soaking a pad in an hour may indicate postpartum hemorrhage and should be reported immediately.
You may also like to solve these questions
A woman's temperature has just risen 0.4°F and will remain elevated during the remainder of her cycle. She expects to menstruate in about 2 weeks. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the change?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Follicle stimulating hormone
- C. Luteinizing hormone
- D. Estrogen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The hormone responsible for the increase in body temperature prior to menstruation is estrogen. Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone that plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Around the time of ovulation, estrogen levels peak, which can lead to a slight rise in body temperature. This increase in temperature is known as the "estrogenic temperature shift" and is a normal part of the menstrual cycle. The rise in body temperature indicates that ovulation has occurred and that a woman is approaching her fertile window. Estrogen also helps prepare the uterine lining for pregnancy and plays a role in many other reproductive functions.
Before giving a client oral combination contraceptives, which side effects should the nurse tell the patient to be aware of? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Irregular bleeding
- B. Thick vaginal discharge
- C. Nausea
- D. Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common side effects of oral combination contraceptives include irregular bleeding, nausea, and breast tenderness. Choice B is incorrect because thick vaginal discharge is not a typical side effect of oral contraceptives.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with a diagnosis of gestational diabetes. What finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Blood sugar of 130 mg/dL after a meal.
- B. Fasting blood sugar of 95 mg/dL.
- C. Presence of ketones in the urine.
- D. Client reports increased thirst.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ketones in the urine indicate poor glucose control and possible ketoacidosis, requiring urgent medical attention.
The nurse is assessing a client with ruptured membranes. What finding suggests chorioamnionitis?
- A. Clear amniotic fluid.
- B. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
- C. Fetal heart rate of 140 beats/minute.
- D. Absence of maternal fever.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Foul-smelling discharge is a key indicator of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid.
A patient calls and says she used her diaphragm on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., again on Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and again at 8:00 a.m. She is wondering when she can safely remove it while still having effective contraception. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. 10:00 a.m. Sunday
- B. 2:00 p.m. Sunday
- C. 10:00 p.m. Sunday
- D. 8:00 a.m. Monday
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In general, a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours. Based on the patient's usage times on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and Sunday morning at 8:00 a.m., she can safely remove the diaphragm on Monday morning at 8:00 a.m. This ensures she has used it for the necessary timeframe for effective contraception.