Nokea
The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) how to do pursed-lip breathing. Evaluation of understanding is evident if the client performs which action?
- A. Breathes in and then holds the breath for 30 seconds
- B. Loosens the abdominal muscles while breathing out
- C. Inhales with puckered lips and exhales with the mouth open wide
- D. Breathes so that expiration is two to three times as long as inspiration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: COPD is a disease state characterized by airflow obstruction. Prolonging expiration time reduces air trapping caused by airway narrowing that occurs in COPD. The client is not instructed to breathe in and hold the breath for 30 seconds; this action has no useful purpose for the client with COPD. Tightening (not loosening) the abdominal muscles aids in expelling air. Exhaling through pursed lips (not with the mouth wide open) increases the intraluminal pressure and prevents the airways from collapsing.
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The nurse evaluates the patency of a peripheral intravenous (IV) site and suspects an infiltration. Which action should the nurse take to determine if the IV has infiltrated?
- A. Strip the tubing and assess for a blood return.
- B. Check the regional tissue for redness and warmth.
- C. Increase the infusion rate and observe for swelling.
- D. Gently palpate regional tissue for edema and coolness.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When assessing an IV for clinical indicators of infiltration, it is important to assess the site for edema and coolness, signifying leakage of the IV fluid into the surrounding tissues. Stripping the tubing will not cause a blood return but will force IV fluid into the surrounding tissues, which can increase the risk of tissue damage. Redness and warmth are more likely to indicate infection or phlebitis.
The nurse assists a client diagnosed with a renal disorder in collecting a 24-hour urine specimen. Which intervention does the nurse implement to ensure proper collection of the 24-hour urine specimen?
- A. Have the client void at the start time and discard the specimen.
- B. Strain the specimen before pouring the urine into the container.
- C. Save all urine, beginning with the urine voided at the start time.
- D. Once completed, refrigerate the urine collection until picked up by the laboratory.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse asks the client to void at the beginning of the collection period and discards this urine sample because this urine has been stored in the bladder for an undetermined length of time. All urine thereafter is saved in an iced or refrigerated container. The client is asked to void at the finish time, and this sample is the last specimen added to the collection.
After performing an initial abdominal assessment on a client with a diagnosis of cholelithiasis, the nurse documents that the bowel sounds are normal. When asked, how would the nurse describe this finding to the client?
- A. Waves of loud gurgles auscultated in all four quadrants
- B. Soft gurgling or clicking sounds auscultated in all four quadrants
- C. Low-pitched swishing sounds auscultated in one or two quadrants
- D. Very high-pitched loud rushes auscultated, especially in one or two quadrants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although frequency and intensity of bowel sounds will vary depending on the phase of digestion, normal bowel sounds are relatively soft gurgling or clicking sounds that occur irregularly 5 to 35 times per minute. Loud gurgles (borborygmi) indicate hyperperistalsis. A swishing or buzzing sound represents turbulent blood flow associated with a bruit. No aortic bruits should be heard. Bowel sounds will be higher pitched and loud (hyperresonance) when the intestines are under tension, such as in intestinal obstruction.
A client experiencing difficulty breathing and increased pulmonary congestion was prescribed furosemide 40 mg to be given intravenously. After an hour which assessment value indicates that the therapy has been effective?
- A. The lungs are now clear upon auscultation.
- B. The urine output has increased by 400 mL.
- C. The blood pressure has decreased from 118/64 mm Hg to 106/62 mm Hg.
- D. The serum potassium has decreased from 4.7 mEq to 4.1 mEq (4.7 mmol/L to 4.1 mmol/L).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic. In this situation, it was given to decrease preload and reduce the pulmonary congestion and associated difficulty in breathing. Although all options may occur, option 1 is the reason that the furosemide was administered.
A pregnant client at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted to the obstetrical unit for observation after a motor vehicle crash. When the client begins experiencing slight vaginal bleeding and mild cramps, which action should the nurse take to support the viability of the fetus?
- A. Insert an intravenous line and begin an infusion at 125 mL per hour.
- B. Administer oxygen to the woman via a face mask at 7 to 10 L per minute.
- C. Position and connect the ultrasound transducer to the external fetal monitor.
- D. Position and connect a spiral electrode to the fetal monitor for internal fetal monitoring.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: External fetal monitoring will allow the nurse to determine any change in the fetal heart rate and rhythm that would indicate that the fetus is in jeopardy. The amount of bleeding described is insufficient to require intravenous fluid replacement. Because fetal distress has not been determined at this time, oxygen administration is premature. Internal monitoring is contraindicated when there is vaginal bleeding, especially in preterm labor.