Nokea
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge is a barrier method of contraception that, when used with foam or jelly contraception, reduces the transmission of HIV and other STDs, as well as reducing the risk of pregnancy. Intrauterine devices (IUDs), Norplant, and oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy but not the transmission of HIV and STDs. Clients using the contraceptive methods in Choices A, B, and C should be counseled to use a chemical or barrier contraceptive to decrease the transmission of HIV or STDs.
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When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?
- A. family history of stroke
- B. ovaries removed before age 45
- C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
- D. unexplained vaginal bleeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. This is because it can be a sign of underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy. A family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy; therefore, they are not contraindications.
The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?
- A. nausea
- B. headache
- C. vertigo
- D. tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.
A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period during which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause typically lasts around five years. Climacteric is a term that describes the period when physiologic changes result in the cessation of a woman's reproductive ability and decreased sexual activity. This term applies to both genders. Menopause is the time when menstruation permanently stops. Postmenopause refers to the period after menopausal changes are complete. In this scenario, the woman's irregular menses indicate she is likely in the perimenopausal stage, experiencing hormonal fluctuations and changes.
How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
- B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
- C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
- D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.