The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism about levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime
- B. Report any chest pain
- C. Stop the medication if symptoms improve
- D. Avoid taking with calcium supplements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate overstimulation from levothyroxine, mimicking hyperthyroidism. Options A, C, and D are incorrect: morning dosing is preferred, stopping the medication risks relapse, and calcium supplements should be avoided but are secondary.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse should anticipate the client with a gastric ulcer to have pain
- A. two to three hours after a meal.
- B. at night.
- C. relieved by ingestion of food.
- D. one-half to one hour after a meal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: pain related to a gastric ulcer occurs about one-half to one hour after a meal and rarely at night; is not helped by ingestion of food
A 34-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse not expect to see during an attack?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Diaphoresis
- C. Apprehension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pheochromocytoma causes catecholamine release, leading to tachycardia, not bradycardia, during an attack.
Which of the following findings is consistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
- A. Jugular vein distention indicates increased fluid volume
- B. Carbon dioxide reading of 30
- C. Hemoglobin of 18
- D. Potassium level of 5.5
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jugular vein distention reflects increased fluid volume and right-sided heart failure, a hallmark of congestive heart failure. Other options are not specific to this condition.
A postoperative client has pain medication ordered PRN for discomfort. During the first assessment, the nurse notes that the client has not received pain medication all day. His vital signs are within normal limits, but he is sweating profusely. He smiles at you while speaking and states that he is not hot but is still experiencing some pain and has been since early this morning. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Administer the largest dose of pain medication allowed because he has been without it all day and then allow him to rest undisturbed.
- B. Administer the minimum dose of medication and reassess his level of pain 30 minutes after administration.
- C. Hold the pain medication because his vital signs are within normal limits and he is smiling and showing no evidence of being in pain.
- D. Encourage the client to continue to do without pain medication so he won't become addicted to the opioid.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the minimum dose and reassessing ensures effective pain management while monitoring response, given diaphoresis and reported pain.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of depression.
- A. Which client statement indicates a positive response to antidepressant therapy?
- B. I feel like my old self again.'
- C. I don’t need to take the medication anymore.'
- D. I’m sleeping more than usual.'
- E. I still feel sad most of the time.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Feeling like their old self indicates improved mood and function, a positive response to antidepressants. Stopping medication prematurely, excessive sleep, or persistent sadness suggest inadequate response or side effects.
Nokea