Nokea
The nurse is teaching the client who is wishing to travel by airplane during the first 36 weeks of her pregnancy. Which is the primary risk of air travel for this client that the nurse should address?
- A. Risk of preterm labor
- B. Deep vein thrombosis
- C. Spontaneous abortion
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary risk with air travel during pregnancy is DVT. Pregnancy increases the risk of blood coagulation, and prolonged sitting produces venous stasis. Preterm labor is not associated with air travel. The threat of spontaneous abortion diminishes during the second trimester. Spontaneous abortion is not associated with air travel. Although nausea and vomiting can occur, they are not dangerous.
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The client at 32 weeks’ gestation presents to a hospital with a severe headache. Her admission BP is 184/104 mm Hg. Based on the assessment and findings of the serum laboratory report, which most severe complication warrants the nurse’s further assessment?
- A. Renal failure
- B. Liver failure
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is most important for the nurse to further assess for HELLP syndrome, a variation of pregnancy-induced hypertension characterized by hemolysis (elevated bilirubin), elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The laboratory results do not show the serum creatinine level, so no inferences can be made about renal failure. Although liver enzymes are elevated, HELLP syndrome is a more severe complication associated with pregnancy. Preeclampsia commonly coexists with HELLP syndrome; however, these laboratory findings show worsening symptoms that are associated with HELLP syndrome.
The client, who delivered a 4200-g baby 4 hours ago, continues to have bright red, heavy vaginal bleeding. The nurse assesses the client’s fundus and finds it to be firm and midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Continue to monitor the client’s bleeding and weigh the peripads.
- B. Call the client’s HCP and request an additional visual examination.
- C. Prepare to give oxytocin to stimulate uterine muscle contraction.
- D. Document the findings as normal with no interventions needed at that time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the nurse would definitely need to continue to monitor the amount and quality of bleeding, additional intervention is also needed. The nurse should consider the possibility of a vaginal wall or cervical laceration, which could produce heavy, bright red bleeding. The HCP should be notified and asked to perform a visual exam of the vagina to assess for possible lacerations in need of repair. Preparing to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) would be appropriate if the source of bleeding was suspected to be uterine atony, but the uterus is firm and in the expected location. Documenting the findings without further intervention would lead to a failure to identify the source of increased bleeding resulting in possible client injury. Further assessments and interventions are needed.
The nurse is providing nutrition counseling to the client during her first prenatal clinical visit. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that the client has an understanding of some of the nutritional requirements during pregnancy?
- A. “I can eat cheese as an alternative to milk, as I don’t care for milk.”
- B. “I should be eating more at each meal because I’m eating for two.”
- C. “I will need to limit my calories because I am already overweight.”
- D. “I should limit myself to eating only three healthy meals per day.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cheese is a milk product and is an alternative to milk. This statement indicates understanding of nutritional requirements regarding milk and milk products. Caloric intake needs to increase by 300 kcal per day during pregnancy to meet increased metabolic needs. However, “I’m eating for two” is a common misconception and leads to caloric intake greater than necessary. Caloric intake needs to increase by 300 kcal per day and should not be limited during pregnancy. Nutritional snacks throughout the day can provide for steady blood glucose levels and decrease the nausea associated with pregnancy. A limit of only three meals per day may not provide the client with enough calories to meet increased metabolic needs or may cause the client to eat more at each meal and increase nausea and bloating.
Which of the following is most indicative of the presence of hydatidiform mole?
- A. A blotchy brown discoloration on the face
- B. A positive Chadwick's sign
- C. The presence of ballottement
- D. A uterus that is larger than expected
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A uterus larger than expected for gestational age is characteristic of hydatidiform mole, a gestational trophoblastic disease.
The nurse is caring for the pregnant client at the initial prenatal visit. Which universal screenings should the nurse complete? Select all that apply.
- A. Taking the client’s blood pressure
- B. Doing a urine dipstick test for protein
- C. Doing a urine dipstick test for glucose
- D. Asking questions about domestic violence
- E. Asking questions about use of tobacco
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: BP screening should be performed at the initial prenatal visit to establish a baseline and to evaluate for actual or potential problems. Domestic violence screening should be performed at the initial prenatal visit to determine fetal and maternal risk for harm. Screening for tobacco use should be performed at the initial prenatal visit to determine fetal and maternal risk. Smoking is associated with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion, preterm labor, and low birth weight. The use of routine urine dip assessments is unreliable in detecting proteinuria and is not always considered accurate. A urine sample should be collected and a UA completed to check for a UTI. The urine dipstick test is of insufficient sensitivity to be used as a screening tool for glycosuria and is not always considered accurate. A urine sample should be collected and a UA completed to check for the presence of glucose.