The nurse is teaching the postpartum client about newborn transitional stool. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? SATA
- A. They have greenish brown color
- B. They are looser consistency
- C. They are seedy with sweet sour smell
- D. They have tar like consistency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transitional stools in newborns typically have a greenish-brown color due to the presence of meconium and the changing composition of the stool as the baby starts digesting breastmilk or formula.
Rationale:
1. A: Greenish-brown color is characteristic of transitional stools as meconium is being passed out.
Incorrect answers:
2. B: Transitional stools are not necessarily looser in consistency.
3. C: Transitional stools are not typically described as seedy with a sweet-sour smell.
4. D: Tar-like consistency is more indicative of meconium, not transitional stools.
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16wks gestation reports for a triple screen test. What statements determines understanding?
- A. "This test can be used as a screening for spina bifida."
- B. "This test is a screen test, and I will need other testing if I have abn results."
- C. "this test can indicate if I may be at an increased risk for having a child with down syndrome."
- D. A triple screen test is a screening tool. Maternal blood is drawn and alpha-fetoprotein, hcg, and estriol values are assessed to determine if the mother is at an increased risk for neural tube defects or chromosomal trisomy's. Spina bifida and downs syndrome are the two most common risks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. A triple screen test includes assessing alpha-fetoprotein, hCG, and estriol levels.
2. These values help determine the risk for neural tube defects and chromosomal trisomies.
3. The test does not directly diagnose spina bifida but assesses neural tube defects.
4. Down syndrome risk is also evaluated, not diagnosed directly.
5. Answer D provides a comprehensive explanation of the test components and its purpose, aligning with the test's actual function.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. Incorrect because the test screens for neural tube defects and chromosomal trisomies, not just spina bifida.
B. Incorrect because the test is a screening tool for specific conditions, not a definitive diagnostic test.
C. Incorrect because the test assesses multiple conditions, not just Down syndrome specifically.
A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic for advice about contraception. What is the most appropriate contraception method for a woman who is nearing menopause?
- A. Oral contraceptives with estrogen
- B. Contraceptive injections
- C. IUD with progestin
- D. Barrier methods like condoms
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate contraception method for a woman nearing menopause is an IUD with progestin (Choice C). Progestin-containing IUDs are effective, long-lasting, and suitable for women of various ages. As women approach menopause, the hormonal changes make progestin-containing IUD a favorable option as it offers reliable contraception without the need for daily administration. Additionally, progestin can also help alleviate symptoms like heavy periods that women may experience during perimenopause.
Choices A and B are not ideal as oral contraceptives with estrogen can increase the risk of blood clots in older women, and contraceptive injections may not be as convenient for someone nearing menopause. Barrier methods like condoms (Choice D) are less effective and may not provide the level of protection needed during this stage of life.
What are signs of neonatal sepsis that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability
- B. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals
- C. Lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea
- D. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea are classic signs of neonatal sepsis. Lethargy indicates decreased activity and responsiveness, poor perfusion suggests inadequate blood circulation, and apnea is a serious respiratory issue. These signs indicate a systemic infection affecting multiple organs. Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical symptoms of neonatal sepsis. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability (Choice A) are more general and can be seen in various conditions. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals (Choice B) are not indicative of sepsis, as sepsis typically causes the opposite. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis (Choice D) can be present in sepsis, but they are not as specific or as common as the signs in Choice C.
A client at 28 weeks' gestation is undergoing a glucose tolerance test. What is the purpose of this test?
- A. To detect anemia.
- B. To screen for gestational diabetes.
- C. To assess fetal growth.
- D. To evaluate placental function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To screen for gestational diabetes. The glucose tolerance test during pregnancy helps to identify women at risk for developing gestational diabetes, a condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and baby. By measuring blood sugar levels after consuming a glucose solution, healthcare providers can assess how the body processes sugar during pregnancy. This test is specifically designed to detect abnormalities in glucose metabolism during pregnancy.
Choice A: To detect anemia - Anemia is not typically identified through a glucose tolerance test. Anemia is usually diagnosed through a blood test that measures hemoglobin levels.
Choice C: To assess fetal growth - Fetal growth is usually monitored through ultrasound scans and measurements, not through a glucose tolerance test.
Choice D: To evaluate placental function - Placental function is evaluated through other tests like Doppler ultrasound, not through a glucose tolerance test.
The nurse understands vitamin k is for?
- A. Not initially synthesized because of sterile bowel at birth (so they don't have enough clothing factors)
- B. Necessary for the production of platelets
- C. Important for production red blood cells
- D. Responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and the prevention of jaundice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because vitamin K is responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin in the liver, which helps prevent jaundice in newborns. Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of old red blood cells, and vitamin K plays a crucial role in this process. Choice A is incorrect as sterile bowel does not affect vitamin K synthesis. Choice B is incorrect because platelet production is not directly related to vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as red blood cell production is mainly regulated by other nutrients like iron, vitamin B12, and folate, not vitamin K.
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