Nokea
The nurse knows that infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following?
- A. Cytomegalovirus
- B. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
- C. Epstein-Barr virus
- D. Herpes simplex virus I
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.
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The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation is admitted with warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity. Which HCP order would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Protamine sulfate, an anticoagulant antidote.
- B. Heparin sodium, an anticoagulant.
- C. Lovenox, a low molecular weight anticoagulant.
- D. Vitamin K, an anticoagulant agonist.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Warfarin toxicity causes bleeding; vitamin K (D) reverses it. Protamine (A) reverses heparin, heparin/Lovenox (B, C) worsen bleeding.
The client diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia is prescribed ferrous gluconate orally. Which should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Take Imodium, an antidiarrheal, over-the-counter (OTC) for diarrhea.
- B. Limit exercise for several weeks until a tolerance is achieved.
- C. The stools may be very dark, and this can mask blood.
- D. Eat only red meats and organ meats for protein.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ferrous gluconate darkens stools (C), potentially masking GI bleeding. Imodium (A) is premature, exercise (B) is encouraged, and diet (D) should be varied, not meat-only.
The client is diagnosed with severe iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement is the scientific rationale regarding oral replacement therapy?
- A. Iron supplements are well tolerated without side effects.
- B. There is no benefit from oral preparations; the best route is IV.
- C. Oral iron preparations cause diarrhea if not taken with food.
- D. Very little of the iron supplement will be absorbed by the body.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oral iron has low absorption (D), requiring high doses. Side effects (A) include GI upset, IV (B) is for severe cases, and diarrhea (C) is not primary (constipation is common).
Which laboratory result would the nurse expect in the client diagnosed with DIC?
- A. A decreased prothrombin time.
- B. A low fibrinogen level.
- C. An increased platelet count.
- D. An increased white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DIC consumes clotting factors, lowering fibrinogen (B). PT is prolonged (A), platelets decrease (C), and WBCs (D) are nonspecific.
A client who receives a diagnosis of pernicious anemia asks why she must receive vitamin shots. What is the best answer for the nurse to give?
- A. Shots work faster than pills.'
- B. Your body cannot absorb vitamin B12 from foods.'
- C. Vitamins are necessary to make the blood cells.'
- D. You can get more vitamins in a shot than a pill.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pernicious anemia, the lack of intrinsic factor prevents absorption of vitamin B12 from foods, necessitating injections.