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The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
- A. Improve the quality of care
- B. Decrease staff turnover
- C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
- D. Improve team morale
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
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The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
- C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
- D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, what should the nurse do?
- A. Face the client and speak slowly
- B. Speak loudly and clearly
- C. Use written communication only
- D. Avoid using gestures or body language
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, it is important to face the client and speak slowly. This helps the individual lip-read and understand the communication more easily. Speaking loudly can distort speech and make it harder for the person to understand. Written communication may not always be practical or accessible for the client, especially in real-time interactions. Gestures and body language can actually aid in communication by providing visual cues and context. Therefore, the best approach is to face the client, speak clearly at a moderate pace, and use gestures and body language to enhance understanding.
A client is scheduled to have his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level checked. The client asks the nurse to explain the laboratory test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "This test will indicate if you are at risk for developing blood clots."
- B. "This test will determine if your heart is performing properly."
- C. "This test will provide information about the function of your liver."
- D. "This test is used to check how your kidneys are working."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This test will provide information about the function of your liver." Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme mainly found in the liver. An elevated ALT level may indicate liver damage or disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ALT is specifically related to liver function and not indicative of blood clot risk, heart performance, or kidney function.
The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
- B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
- C. Position legs flat against the bed.
- D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
- D. Crepitus around the insertion site
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.