Nokea
The nurse manager is reviewing the principles of surgical asepsis with the nursing staff. In which situations should the nurse manager communicate to the staff that it is necessary to use the principles of surgical asepsis? Select all that apply.
- A. Removing a dressing
- B. Reapplying sterile dressings
- C. Inserting an intravenous (IV) line
- D. Inserting a urinary (Foley) catheter
- E. Suctioning the tracheobronchial airway
- F. Caring for an immunosuppressed client
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Surgical asepsis involves the use of sterile technique. Some examples of procedures in which surgical asepsis is necessary include reapplying sterile dressings, inserting an IV or urinary catheter, and suctioning the tracheobronchial airway. Medical asepsis, or clean technique, includes procedures to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms. Removing a dressing can be done by clean technique using clean gloves (although reapplying the dressing requires surgical asepsis). Caring for an immunosuppressed client requires medical asepsis techniques.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse administers digoxin 0.25 \mathrm{mg by mouth rather than the prescribed dose of 0.125 \mathrm{mg to the client. After assessing the client and notifying the health care provider, which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Write an incident report.
- B. Administer digoxin immune Fab.
- C. Tell the client about the medication error.
- D. Tell the client about the adverse effects of digoxin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to agency policy, the nurse should file an incident report when a medication error occurs to accurately document the facts. The nurse should assess the client first and then contact the primary health care provider (HCP) because in this situation the client received too much medication. The client should be informed of the error and the adverse effects in a professional manner to avoid alarm and concern. However, in many situations, the HCP prefers to discuss this with the client. Digoxin immune Fab is reserved for extreme toxicity and requires a prescription and may be prescribed depending on the client's response and the serum digoxin level.
The nurse assisting in the care of a client who is to be cardioverted should plan to set the monophasic defibrillator to which starting energy levels range, depending on the specific primary health care provider prescription?
- A. 50 to 100 joules
- B. 200 to 250 joules
- C. 250 to 300 joules
- D. 350 to 400 joules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cardioversion is synchronized countershock to convert an undesirable rhythm to a stable rhythm. Cardioversion is usually started at 50 to 100 joules. When a client is cardioverted, the defibrillator is charged to the energy level prescribed by the primary health care provider, and the remaining options identify energy levels that are too high for cardioversion.
When a hospitalized child develops a rash that covers the trunk and extremities, the nurse notes in the history that the child was exposed to varicella 2 weeks ago. Which nursing intervention has priority?
- A. Immediately reassign the child's roommate.
- B. Place the child in a private room on strict isolation.
- C. Confirm the exposure occurred with the child's parent.
- D. Assess the progression of the rash and report it to the primary health care provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with undiagnosed rash needs to be placed on strict isolation. Varicella causes a profuse rash on the trunk with a sparse rash on the extremities. The incubation period is 14 to 21 days. It is important to prevent the spread of this communicable disease by placing the child in isolation until further diagnosis and treatment are made. None of the other options address the need to prevent the spread of the disease.
The nurse is preparing to administer oxygen to a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is at risk for carbon dioxide narcosis. The nurse should check to see that the oxygen flow rate is prescribed at which rate?
- A. 2 to 3 liters per minute
- B. 4 to 5 liters per minute
- C. 6 to 8 liters per minute
- D. 8 to 10 liters per minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In carbon dioxide narcosis, the central chemoreceptors lose their sensitivity to increased levels of carbon dioxide and no longer respond by increasing the rate and depth of respiration. For these clients, the stimulus to breathe is a decreased arterial oxygen concentration. In the client with COPD, a low arterial oxygen level is the client's primary drive for breathing. If high levels of oxygen are administered, the client may lose the respiratory drive, and respiratory failure results. Thus, the nurse checks the flow of oxygen to see that it does not exceed 2 to 3 liters per minute, unless a specific health care provider prescription indicates a different flow of the oxygen.
The medication nurse is supervising a newly hired licensed practical nurse (LPN) during the administration of prescribed oral pyridostigmine bromide to a client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which observation by the medication nurse indicates safe practice by the LPN?
- A. Asking the client to take sips of water
- B. Asking the client to lie down on his right side
- C. Asking the client to look up at the ceiling for 30 seconds
- D. Instructing the client to void before taking the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis can affect the client's ability to swallow. The primary assessment is to determine the client's ability to handle oral medications or any oral substance. Options 2 and 3 are not appropriate. Option 2 could result in aspiration, and option 3 has no useful purpose. There is no specific reason for the client to void before taking this medication.