The nurse manager reviewing the purposes for applying restraints to a client determines that further education is necessary when a nursing staff member makes which statement supporting the use of a restraint?
- A. It limits movement of a limb during a painful procedure.
- B. It prevents the violent client from injuring self and others.
- C. At night it keeps the client in bed instead of wandering about.
- D. It is useful in preventing the client from pulling out intravenous lines.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wrist and ankle restraints are devices used to limit the client's movement in situations when it is necessary to immobilize a limb. Restraints are not applied to keep a client in bed at night and should never be used as a form of punishment. Restraints are applied to prevent the client from injuring self or others; pulling out intravenous lines, catheters, or tubes; or removing dressings. Restraints also may be used to keep children still and from injuring themselves during treatments and diagnostic procedures. A primary health care provider's prescription is required for the use of restraints, and state and agency procedures are always followed when restraints are used.
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Which situation represents the primary nursing care delivery model?
- A. The registered nurse (RN) performs all tasks needed by the individual client to optimize health.
- B. The RN provides care to 4 clients, while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to care for 2 clients.
- C. The RN develops a plan of care for each client and collaborates with other staff members assigned to the same group of clients.
- D. The UAP is assigned to make beds and fill water pitchers. The RN is assigned to administer medications.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In primary nursing, option 1, concern is with keeping the nurse at the bedside actively involved in care, providing goal-directed and individualized client care. Option 2 does not follow the guidelines for any specific type of nursing care delivery approach. Team nursing, option 3, is characterized by a high degree of communication and collaboration among members. The team is generally led by an RN, who is responsible for assessing, developing nursing diagnoses, planning, and evaluating each client's plan of care. The functional model of care involves an assembly line approach to client care, with major tasks being delegated by the charge nurse to individual staff members.
The nurse assisting in the care of a client who is to be cardioverted should plan to set the monophasic defibrillator to which starting energy levels range, depending on the specific primary health care provider prescription?
- A. 50 to 100 joules
- B. 200 to 250 joules
- C. 250 to 300 joules
- D. 350 to 400 joules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cardioversion is synchronized countershock to convert an undesirable rhythm to a stable rhythm. Cardioversion is usually started at 50 to 100 joules. When a client is cardioverted, the defibrillator is charged to the energy level prescribed by the primary health care provider, and the remaining options identify energy levels that are too high for cardioversion.
The medication nurse is supervising a newly hired licensed practical nurse (LPN) during the administration of prescribed oral pyridostigmine bromide to a client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which observation by the medication nurse indicates safe practice by the LPN?
- A. Asking the client to take sips of water
- B. Asking the client to lie down on his right side
- C. Asking the client to look up at the ceiling for 30 seconds
- D. Instructing the client to void before taking the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis can affect the client's ability to swallow. The primary assessment is to determine the client's ability to handle oral medications or any oral substance. Options 2 and 3 are not appropriate. Option 2 could result in aspiration, and option 3 has no useful purpose. There is no specific reason for the client to void before taking this medication.
When a hospitalized child develops a rash that covers the trunk and extremities, the nurse notes in the history that the child was exposed to varicella 2 weeks ago. Which nursing intervention has priority?
- A. Immediately reassign the child's roommate.
- B. Place the child in a private room on strict isolation.
- C. Confirm the exposure occurred with the child's parent.
- D. Assess the progression of the rash and report it to the primary health care provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with undiagnosed rash needs to be placed on strict isolation. Varicella causes a profuse rash on the trunk with a sparse rash on the extremities. The incubation period is 14 to 21 days. It is important to prevent the spread of this communicable disease by placing the child in isolation until further diagnosis and treatment are made. None of the other options address the need to prevent the spread of the disease.
The nurse manager is reviewing the principles of surgical asepsis with the nursing staff. In which situations should the nurse manager communicate to the staff that it is necessary to use the principles of surgical asepsis? Select all that apply.
- A. Removing a dressing
- B. Reapplying sterile dressings
- C. Inserting an intravenous (IV) line
- D. Inserting a urinary (Foley) catheter
- E. Suctioning the tracheobronchial airway
- F. Caring for an immunosuppressed client
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Surgical asepsis involves the use of sterile technique. Some examples of procedures in which surgical asepsis is necessary include reapplying sterile dressings, inserting an IV or urinary catheter, and suctioning the tracheobronchial airway. Medical asepsis, or clean technique, includes procedures to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms. Removing a dressing can be done by clean technique using clean gloves (although reapplying the dressing requires surgical asepsis). Caring for an immunosuppressed client requires medical asepsis techniques.
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