The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?
- A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
- B. Observe for edema around the ankles
- C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level
- D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.
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A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Positive urine ketones
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.
The nurse observes an adolescent client preparing to administer a prescribed corticosteroid medication using a metered dose inhaler. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication
- B. Confirm that the client has correctly shaken the inhaler
- C. Affirm that the client has correctly positioned the inhaler
- D. Ask the client if they have a spacer to use for this medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Reminding the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication is crucial as it helps ensure the medication is absorbed into the lungs. Option B is incorrect because shaking the inhaler is not directly related to the client's inhalation technique. Option C is incorrect as correct positioning of the inhaler is important but not the immediate action needed in this situation. Option D is incorrect as asking about the spacer is not the most relevant action to take at this moment.
One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe for unilateral swelling
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Elevate the leg and apply a warm compress
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to observe for unilateral swelling. Unilateral swelling could indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication that requires immediate assessment. Administering pain medication or applying warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after assessing and identifying the issue of unilateral swelling.
In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arterial blood gas (ABG) values. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, ABG values are crucial as they provide essential information about the client's respiratory status, including oxygenation and acid-base balance. Immediate intervention may be required to optimize respiratory function based on ABG results. Serum potassium, sodium, and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in various conditions but are not as directly related to the respiratory status in a client with COPD and pneumonia. Therefore, they do not require immediate intervention compared to ABG values.
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