Nokea
The nurse notes thick, white secretions in the endotracheal tube (ET) of a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which intervention will be most effective in addressing this problem?
- A. Increase suctioning to every hour.
- B. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
- C. Add additional water to the patient’s enteral feedings.
- D. Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning. This intervention helps to loosen and mobilize the thick secretions, making them easier to remove during suctioning. It is important to moisten the secretions to prevent mucosal damage and trauma during suctioning.
A: Increasing suctioning frequency can lead to mucosal damage and increased risk of infection.
B: Repositioning helps with ventilation and preventing pressure injuries, but it does not directly address the thick secretions.
C: Adding water to enteral feedings will not directly address the thick secretions in the ET.
In summary, instilling sterile saline into the ET before suctioning is the most effective intervention as it helps to loosen and mobilize thick secretions, making suctioning more effective and reducing the risk of mucosal damage.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which hemodynamic parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to determine the effectiveness of medications given to a patient to reduce left ventricular afterload?
- A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
- B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR). SVR reflects the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring SVR, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload, as these medications work by dilating blood vessels and reducing resistance. An effective reduction in afterload would lead to a decrease in SVR.
A: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is an indicator of perfusion pressure but may not directly reflect changes in afterload.
C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is specific to the pulmonary circulation and not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left ventricular preload and filling pressures, not afterload.
When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87°F (30.6°C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?
- A. The patient begins to shiver.
- B. The BP decreases to 86/42 mm Hg.
- C. The patient develops atrial fibrillation.
- D. The core temperature is 94°F (34.4°C).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When rewarming a hypothermic patient, the goal is to gradually increase their core temperature. A core temperature of 94°F (34.4°C) is still below the normal range, but it indicates that the rewarming process is working. Shivering (A) is a normal response to rewarming. A decrease in blood pressure (B) may be expected due to peripheral vasodilation during rewarming. Developing atrial fibrillation (C) may be a concern but does not necessarily indicate that rewarming should be discontinued. Therefore, choice D is correct as it signifies progress in the rewarming process.
What is true regarding pain and anxiety in the healthy individual? (Select all that apply.)
- A. They activate the sympathetic nervous system.
- B. They decrease stress levels.
- C. They help remove one from harm.
- D. They increase performance levels.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because pain and anxiety trigger the sympathetic nervous system's fight-or-flight response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and stress hormones to prepare the body for potential danger. This physiological response helps the individual respond to perceived threats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pain and anxiety typically increase stress levels, do not necessarily remove one from harm, and can hinder rather than enhance performance due to distraction and decreased focus.
The family of your critically ill patient tells you that they h ave not spoken with the physician in over 24 hours and they have some questions that they w ant clarified. During morning rounds, you convey this concern to the attending intensivist and arrange for her to meet with the family at 4:00 PM in the conference room. Which com petency of critical care nursing does this represent?
- A. Advocacy and moral agency in solving ethical issues
- B. Clinical judgment and clinical reasoning skills
- C. Collaboration with patients, families, and team membe rs
- D. Facilitation of learning for patients, families, and team members
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaboration with patients, families, and team members. By addressing the family's concern about lack of communication with the physician and arranging a meeting between the intensivist and the family, the nurse is demonstrating collaboration skills in facilitating communication and ensuring the family's questions are addressed. This competency emphasizes the importance of working together with patients, families, and the healthcare team to provide optimal care.
Incorrect choices:
A: Advocacy and moral agency in solving ethical issues - While advocacy is important in nursing, in this scenario, the focus is on communication and collaboration rather than ethical issues.
B: Clinical judgment and clinical reasoning skills - Although these skills are crucial in critical care nursing, the situation described does not primarily involve clinical judgment but rather communication and collaboration.
D: Facilitation of learning for patients, families, and team members - While patient education is important, the main focus of the scenario is on addressing the family's concerns and facilitating communication, rather than educational aspects.
What are the diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study
- B. Decreased cardiac output
- C. PaO /FiO ratio of less than 200 2 2
- D. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study. ARDS diagnosis requires bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, indicative of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice B, decreased cardiac output, is not a diagnostic criterion for ARDS. Choice C, PaO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 200, is a key diagnostic criteria for ARDS, indicating severe hypoxemia. Choice D, PAOP of more than 18 mm Hg, is used to differentiate between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic causes of pulmonary edema, but it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for ARDS.