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The nurse observes a client with a history of psychosis repeatedly looking to the side and mumbling responses to no one present in that direction. Which comment is best for the nurse to make?
- A. The voices you are hearing are not real.
- B. Let's talk about the next time this happens.
- C. You need to be calm and focus on something else.
- D. You appear to be speaking with someone.
- E. None.
- F. None.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging that the client appears to be speaking with someone validates their experience without confirming the reality of the voices, encouraging further communication.
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A client who is an alcoholic receives a prescription for disulfiram 500 mg PO daily. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client?
- A. Take the medication each morning beginning 48 hours after your last drink of alcohol.
- B. Take the medication with at least 8 ounces of water and limit alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime and avoid consuming any more than one ounce of alcohol daily.
- D. Begin taking the medication immediately and take it daily, regardless of whether or not you drink alcohol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Disulfiram should be taken each morning, starting 48 hours after the last drink to prevent a severe reaction, establishing a clear association between the medication and alcohol avoidance.
Naloxone is administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate. Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?
- A. Determine the client's reason for attempting suicide.
- B. Obtain the client's serum hydrocodone/acetaminophen level.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Determining the client's reason for attempting suicide is the highest priority to understand underlying issues and plan appropriate interventions to prevent recurrence.
A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a dissociative disorder episode. The situation quickly escalates, and the client becomes physically aggressive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Request a team member to assist with seclusion and restraint.
- B. Administer lorazepam 1.5 mg intramuscularly twice daily as needed.
- C. Confirm the client's identity and orientation to time and place.
- D. Inspect the area for objects that can be used in a dangerous manner.
- E. None.
- F. None.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inspecting the area for dangerous objects is the first priority to ensure safety during the client's aggressive behavior.
The charge nurse of the psychiatric unit observes clients in the day area. Which client is exhibiting symptoms of a conversion disorder?
- A. A young woman who suddenly goes blind with no indication of organic pathology.
- B. An older adult who continuously complains of a headache and back pain.
- C. An adolescent who becomes extremely anxious about going outside.
- D. A middle-aged man who is complaining of shortness of breath and is diaphoretic.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden blindness with no organic pathology is indicative of a conversion disorder, involving neurological symptoms without a neurological basis.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been receiving haloperidol for the past year, and the treatment plan includes moving the client to a lower maintenance dosage. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply)
- A. Shielding the client from direct sunlight when outdoors.
- B. Gradually withdrawing the medication over several days.
- C. Enforcing a fluid restriction during dosage adjustment.
- D. Increasing the dosage if the white blood cell count drops.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Shielding from sunlight prevents sunburn due to haloperidol's photosensitivity, and gradual withdrawal avoids symptom worsening.