Nokea
The nurse obtains a sample of a client's arterial blood gas (ABGs). Which of the following statements is NOT true about ABGs?
- A. Interpretation of the clients ABGs involves evaluation of pH, PCO2 and HCO3; components of the ABGs.
- B. ABGs assess the client oxygenation status and acid base status.
- C. ABGs provide information on blood parameters.
- D. ABGs asses the client electrolyte and fluid balance.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) do not directly assess the client's electrolyte and fluid balance. ABGs primarily evaluate the client's acid-base balance and oxygenation status by measuring levels of pH, partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), and bicarbonate (HCO3) in the arterial blood. While ABGs can provide some information about blood parameters, such as oxygen saturation, they do not comprehensively assess electrolyte levels or fluid balance. To specifically assess electrolytes and fluid balance, additional tests like basic metabolic panels or comprehensive metabolic panels would be required.
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Which of the following medications is commonly used for the management of overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms such as urinary urgency and frequency?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Oxybutynin
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Finasteride
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxybutynin is a medication commonly used for the management of overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms such as urinary urgency and frequency. It belongs to a class of medications known as anticholinergics, which work by relaxing the bladder muscles and reducing bladder spasms. By doing so, it helps to decrease the symptoms of OAB, including frequent urination, sudden urges to urinate, and leakage. Oxybutynin can be taken orally in tablet form, as a transdermal patch, or as a gel, providing various options for patients based on their preferences and needs. Overall, oxybutynin is an effective treatment option for individuals experiencing overactive bladder symptoms.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the tendons surrounding the shoulder joint, leading to pain and restricted movement?
- A. Rotator cuff tear
- B. Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
- C. Bursitis
- D. Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bursitis is characterized by inflammation of the bursa, which is a small, fluid-filled sac that cushions and reduces friction between bones, tendons, and muscles near joints. In the shoulder, bursitis commonly affects the subacromial bursa, located between the rotator cuff tendons and the top of the shoulder blade. The inflammation of this bursa can lead to pain and restricted movement around the shoulder joint.
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- B. Central retinal artery occlusion
- C. Optic neuritis
- D. Corneal ulcer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.
A pregnant woman presents with severe abdominal pain and syncope at 6 weeks gestation. On examination, she has signs of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a pregnant woman presenting with severe abdominal pain, syncope, signs of hypovolemic shock, and gestational age of 6 weeks, the most likely cause is an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. As the pregnancy grows and the tube stretches, it can lead to rupture, causing severe abdominal pain, internal bleeding, and signs of shock. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to consider ectopic pregnancy in any pregnant woman presenting with abdominal pain and signs of shock, especially in the first trimester.
A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- C. Ischemic stroke
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden onset weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are typical symptoms of a stroke. Imaging revealing an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory is consistent with an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when there is a blockage in a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the affected area, resulting in neurological deficits. This is in contrast to an intracerebral hemorrhage, which is caused by bleeding into the brain tissue, or a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which involves bleeding into the space surrounding the brain. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a brief blockage of blood flow to a part of the brain, usually resolving within 24 hours. In this case, the presentation and imaging findings are most