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The nurse on a medical unit has received the morning shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client who has a 0730 sliding-scale insulin order.
- B. The client who received an initial dose of IV antibiotic at 0645.
- C. The client who is having back pain at a '4' on a 1-to-10 scale.
- D. The client who has dysphagia and needs to be fed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 0730 insulin order is time-sensitive to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Antibiotic monitoring, mild pain, and dysphagia are less urgent.
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Which statement by the client supports the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
- A. I just returned from a short trip to Japan.
- B. I had a really bad cold just a few weeks ago.
- C. I think one of the people I work with had this.
- D. I have been taking some herbs for more than a year.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A recent viral infection (e.g., cold) is a common trigger for Guillain-Barré syndrome. Travel, coworker illness, and herbs are less relevant.
The client diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is placed on high-dose intravenous injections of corticosteroid medication. Which nursing intervention should be implemented?
- A. Discuss discontinuing the proton pump inhibitor with the HCP.
- B. Hold the medication until after all cultures have been obtained.
- C. Monitor the client's serum blood glucose levels frequently.
- D. Provide supplemental dietary sodium with the client's meals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High-dose corticosteroids can cause hyperglycemia, requiring frequent glucose monitoring. Proton pump inhibitors are unrelated, cultures are not needed, and sodium supplementation is unnecessary.
The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with protein-calorie malnutrition secondary to AIDS. Which intervention should be the nurse's first intervention?
- A. Assess the client's body weight and ask what the client has been able to eat.
- B. Place in contact isolation and don a mask and gown before entering the room.
- C. Check the HCP's orders and determine what laboratory tests will be done.
- D. Teach the client about total parenteral nutrition and monitor the subclavian IV site.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing weight and dietary intake provides baseline data for malnutrition management. Isolation is unnecessary, lab orders are secondary, and TPN teaching is premature.
Which signs/symptoms make the nurse suspect the most common opportunistic infection in the female client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
- A. Fever, cough, and shortness of breath.
- B. Oral thrush, esophagitis, and vaginal candidiasis.
- C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss.
- D. Painless violet lesions on the face and tip of nose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, cough, and shortness of breath indicate Pneumocystis pneumonia, the most common AIDS opportunistic infection. Candidiasis, GI symptoms, and Kaposi’s sarcoma are less frequent.
The client recently diagnosed with SLE asks the nurse, 'What is SLE and how did I get it?' Which statement best explains the scientific rationale for the nurse's response?
- A. SLE occurs because the kidneys do not filter antibodies from the blood.
- B. SLE occurs after a viral illness as a result of damage to the endocrine system.
- C. There is no known identifiable reason for a client to develop SLE.
- D. This is an autoimmune disease that may have a genetic or hormonal component.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SLE is an autoimmune disease with genetic and hormonal influences. Kidney issues are a complication, viral triggers are secondary, and the cause is partially understood.