Nokea
The nurse performs an assessment on a client with a history of heart failure who has been taking diuretics on a long-term basis. The nurse reviews the medication record, knowing that which medication, if prescribed for this client, would place the client at risk for hypokalemia?
- A. Bumetanide
- B. Triamterene
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic. The client on this medication would be at risk for hypokalemia. Triamterene, spironolactone, and hydrochlorothiazide are potassium-retaining diuretics.
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The nurse is assessing a 39-year-old Caucasian client with a blood pressure (BP) of 152/92 mm Hg at rest, a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL (4.5 mmol/L), and a fasting blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL (5.14 mmol/L). On which risk factor for coronary artery disease should the nurse place priority?
- A. Age
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperlipidemia
- D. Glucose intolerance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertension, cigarette smoking, and hyperlipidemia are major risk modifiable factors for coronary artery disease. Glucose intolerance, obesity, and response to stress are also contributing factors. An age of more than 40 years is a nonmodifiable risk factor. A cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL (4.5 mmol/L) and a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL (5.14 mmol/L) are within the normal range. The nurse places priority on major risk factors that need modification.
A pregnant client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse is prescribed anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy. The nurse reviews the client's medical record, expecting to note that which medication therapy is prescribed daily?
- A. Oral warfarin
- B. Intravenous infusion of heparin sodium
- C. Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline
- D. Subcutaneous administration of heparin sodium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnant women with mitral valve prolapse are frequently given anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy because they are at greater risk for thromboembolic disease during the antenatal, intrapartal, and postpartum periods. Heparin, which does not pass the placental barrier, is a safe anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy, and it would be administered by the subcutaneous route. Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy because it passes the placental barrier and causes potential fetal malformations and hemorrhagic disorders. Terbutaline is a medication that is indicated for preterm labor management.
A client manages peptic ulcer disease (PUD) with excessive amounts of oral antacids. Signs/symptoms of which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess for?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral antacids can be effective treatment for PUD when administered properly, but when they are taken in excess they can lead to metabolic alkalosis (a pH of more than 7.45 and a bicarbonate ion [HCO3] level of more than 27 mEq/L [27 mmol/L]). As effective therapy for PUD, antacids bind with the hydrochloric acid (HCl-) of gastric secretions and halt the corrosive action of the HCl-. However, antacids are alkaline substances, and excessive administration can exceed the kidney's ability to clear the excess HCO3, which leads to the accumulation of HCO3, an increased pH, and metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH is low and the HCO3 is low; respiratory acidosis occurs when the pH is low and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is high; and respiratory alkalosis occurs when the pH is high and the PCO2 is low.
The nurse interprets that which observation is related to the dysfunction of cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve)?
- A. Mild drowsiness
- B. Unilateral ptosis
- C. Diminished mental acuity
- D. Less frequent spontaneous speech
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ptosis of the eyelid is caused by pressure on and the dysfunction of cranial nerve III, the oculomotor nerve. The remaining options identify early signs of a deteriorating level of consciousness.
Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) therapy is prescribed for a child diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What are the expected results of this medication?
- A. Urine positive for glucose and negative for protein
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.020 and negative for red blood cells
- C. White blood cell count 18,000 mm^3 (18 × 10^9/L) and platelets 355,000 mm^3 (355 × 10^9/L)
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dL (7.92 mmol/L) and creatinine levels of 2.1 mg/dL (185 mcmol/L)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IVIG is usually effective to rapidly increase the platelet count. It is thought to act by interfering with the attachment of antibody-coded platelets to receptors on the macrophage cells of the reticuloendothelial system. Corticosteroids may be prescribed to enhance vascular stability and decrease the production of antiplatelet antibodies. Based on this information, the remaining options are unrelated to the administration of this medication.