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The nurse plans teaching for a 20-year-old newly diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The client is on the college soccer team. Which information should be the nurse’s priority when teaching the client?
- A. Provide pamphlets on genetic testing to avoid passing on an inherited disease.
- B. Reinforce the need to continue exercise with soccer to strengthen the heart.
- C. Provide information about CPR to persons living with the client.
- D. Counsel on foods for consuming on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Because sudden cardiac death is a large risk factor for those under 30 years of age, the nurse should provide information about having others living with the client trained in CPR as a preventative measure. Genetic testing, continued strenuous exercise, and diet are less immediate priorities.
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After receiving normal CXR results of the client who had cardiac surgery, the nurse proceeds to remove the client’s chest tubes as prescribed. Which intervention should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Auscultate the client’s lung sounds
- B. Administer 2 mg morphine sulfate intravenously
- C. Turn off the suction to the chest drainage system
- D. Prepare the dressing supplies at the client’s bedside
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Because the peak action of morphine sulfate is 10 to 15 minutes, this should be administered first to manage pain during chest tube removal. Auscultation, turning off suction, and preparing supplies are secondary.
The nurse assesses the client at a vascular clinic after being treated with pentoxifylline for 6 weeks. The nurse determines that pentoxifylline has been effective when noting that the client has which finding?
- A. A decrease in lower-extremity edema
- B. No symptoms of withdrawal after quitting smoking
- C. A venous ulcer on the ankle that has decreased in size
- D. The ability to walk a longer distance without claudication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pentoxifylline (Trental) is thought to act by improving capillary blood flow and is prescribed to decrease intermittent claudication. Effects are usually seen in 2 to 4 weeks. Edema, smoking withdrawal, and venous ulcers are not treated by pentoxifylline.
The nurse is teaching the client newly diagnosed with chronic stable angina. Which instructions on measures to prevent future angina should the nurse incorporate? Select all that apply.
- A. Increase isometric arm exercises to build endurance.
- B. Wear a facemask when outdoors in cold weather.
- C. Take nitroglycerin before a stressful event even if pain free.
- D. Perform most exertional activities in the morning.
- E. Take a daily laxative to avoid straining with bowel movements.
- F. Discontinue use of all tobacco products if you use these.
Correct Answer: B;C;F
Rationale: The nurse should instruct: B) Wearing a facemask in cold weather to prevent vasoconstriction; C) Taking nitroglycerin prophylactically to improve coronary blood flow; F) Discontinuing tobacco to reduce vasoconstriction. Isometric exercises, morning exertion, and daily laxatives are not recommended as they may increase cardiac workload or cause other issues.
The nurse is assessing the client following cardiac surgery. Which assessment findings should be of the greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, and BP 84/48
- B. Temperature 96.4°F (35.8°C), heart rate 58 bpm, and shivering
- C. Increased heart rate, audible S1 and S2, and pain rated at a 5
- D. Central venous pressure (CVP) 4 mm Hg, urine output 30 mL/hr, and sinus rhythm with a few PVCs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned with JVD, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension (Beck’s Triad). This is a life-threatening event suggesting cardiac tamponade. Other findings are expected post-surgery or less critical.
The client is discovered to have a popliteal aneurysm. Because of the aneurysm, the nurse should closely monitor the client for which associated problem?
- A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B. Ischemia in the lower limb
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A popliteal aneurysm (located in the space behind the knee) may cause ischemia in the leg distal to the aneurysm due to thrombus forming inside the aneurysm and potential emboli. Other options are unrelated to popliteal aneurysms.