Nokea
The nurse practitioner informs the new nurse that the laboring client’s monitor is showing prolonged decelerations. Which interpretation by the new nurse is correct?
- A. The monitor pattern is U or V shaped, with a decrease in FHR to less than 70 beats/minute (bpm), lasting more than 60 seconds.
- B. The FHR shows an episodic or periodic acceleration that lasts 2 minutes or more but less than 10 minutes in duration.
- C. There is an FHR decrease of 15 bpm or more below baseline occurring for at least 2 but not more than 10 minutes.
- D. The mother’s heart rate is exhibiting intermittent or transient deviations or changes from the baseline heart rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A prolonged deceleration occurs when the FHR decreases 15 bpm or more below baseline for at least 2 but not more than 10 minutes. The prolonged deceleration may resolve spontaneously or with the aid of interventions. A U- or V-shaped pattern with abrupt decrease in the FHR to less than 70 bpm, lasting more than 60 seconds, describes variable (not prolonged) deceleration typically associated with cord compression. Any episodic or periodic acceleration of FHR that lasts 2 minutes or more but less than 10 minutes in duration describes prolonged acceleration, not deceleration. The fetal heart monitor is monitoring the FHR and not the mother’s heart rate.
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The laboring client in the first stage of labor is talking and laughing with her husband. The nurse should conclude that the client is probably in what phase?
- A. Transition
- B. Active
- C. Active pushing
- D. Latent
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the latent phase (1—3 cm), the client is usually happy and talkative. During the transition phase (8—10 cm), the client is usually more restless, irritable, and more likely to lose control. During the active phase (4—7 cm), the client may become more anxious and fatigued and needs to concentrate on breathing techniques to cope with the increasingly stronger contractions. The client who is actively pushing is focusing on how effective she is in the descent of the fetus and concentrating on how she is coping with contractions. She is usually not expressing happiness or laughter, and is not talkative.
Twenty-four hours after the birth of her first child, the 25-year-old single client tells the nurse that she has several different male sex partners and asks the nurse to recommend an appropriate birth control method for her. Considering her lifestyle, which method of birth control should the nurse suggest?
- A. An intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections
- C. A female condom with nonoxynol-9
- D. A diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IUDs offer no protection against STIs. They are recommended for women who are in a stable, mutually monogamous relationship. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera) is a long-acting progestin that is highly effective for birth control. A single injection will provide contraception for 3 months but does not offer protection against STIs. A female condom does provide protection against some of the pathogens that cause STIs, and it would be readily available over the counter. A diaphragm offers no protection against STIs.
The nurse advises the client with constipation to increase intake of which food?
- A. High-fiber fruits and vegetables
- B. White rice
- C. Processed meats
- D. Sugary desserts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-fiber fruits and vegetables promote bowel regularity, relieving constipation safely during pregnancy.
The nurse is counseling the client who has SLE. The client tells the nurse that she plans to become pregnant in the next year. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. “It is best to plan for your pregnancy when you have been in remission for 6 months.”
- B. “Having systemic lupus erythematosus will not impact your pregnancy in any way.”
- C. “Your chances of having an infant with congenital malformations are increased with SLE.”
- D. “You will need to be scheduled for a cesarean delivery to prevent disease transmission.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Planning for pregnancy with SLE when in remission for 6 months is correct. Pregnancy planned during periods of inactive or stable disease often results in giving birth to a healthy full-term baby without increased risks of pregnancy complications. Exacerbations of SLE can occur during pregnancy and impact pregnancy outcomes. There is no risk of congenital malformations associated with maternal SLE. However, the risk for spontaneous abortion, preterm labor and birth, and neonatal death is increased. SLE is not a transmissible disease, and there is no reason for a cesarean delivery.
The client admitted in preterm labor is told that an amniocentesis needs to be performed. The client asks the nurse why this is necessary when the HCP has been performing ultrasounds throughout the pregnancy. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. “Your baby is older now, and an amniocentesis provides us with more information on how your baby is doing.”
- B. “An amniocentesis could not be Performed before 32 weeks, so you will be having this test from now until delivery.”
- C. “Your doctor wants to make sure that there are no problems with the baby that an ultrasound might not be able to identify.”
- D. “With your preterm labor your doctor needs to know your baby’s lung maturity; this is best identified by amniocentesis.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The amniocentesis is being performed to determine fetal lung maturity. Once fetal lung maturity is determined, appropriate care can be planned, including administration of betamethasone, administration of tocolytics, or delivery of the baby. While an amniocentesis can provide fetal information that an ultrasound cannot, the rationale for the amniocentesis is to determine lung maturity. Stating additional information is too broad. An amniocentesis can be performed as early as 12 weeks’ gestation, not after 32 weeks. The amniocentesis is not being performed to identify fetal anomalies.