Nokea
The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?
- A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
- B. In a high-Fowler's position with the left arm extended
- C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
- D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct position for a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion undergoing thoracentesis is sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table. This position helps increase lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space making access to the pleural space easier. Placing the patient supine, in a high-Fowler's position, or on the right side with the left arm extended above the head could increase the work of breathing for the patient and complicate the thoracentesis procedure for the healthcare provider.
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The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Hepatitis testing
- B. Tuberculosis screening
- C. Contraceptive teaching
- D. Colonoscopy information
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent in many parts of Asia, including Vietnam, and the incidence of TB is higher in immigrants from Vietnam compared to the general U.S. population. Conducting tuberculosis screening is crucial to identify and address any cases promptly, especially in a community with recent immigrants from Vietnam. While teaching about contraceptive use, providing colonoscopy information, and testing for hepatitis may be relevant for certain individuals in the community, they are not as universally important as tuberculosis screening due to the increased risk of TB among Vietnamese immigrants.
A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient
complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any
kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
- A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
- B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
- C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
- D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of
inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the
extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest
pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully
relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by
the effects of gravity.
Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?
- A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
- B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
- C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
- D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
- A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
- B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
- C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
- D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation is 88%.
- B. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute when lying flat.
- D. Pain level is 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation is 88%.' Following a thoracentesis, oxygen saturation should improve. A saturation of 88% suggests a potential complication like pneumothorax. While the other assessment findings are important, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. High blood pressure and respiratory rate may also need attention, but the immediate concern is the oxygen saturation level. Pain level, though significant for the patient's comfort, takes lower priority compared to the potential life-threatening issue of hypoxia.