The nurse prepares the client for which pain management option during labor?
- A. Epidural anesthesia
- B. Hot baths during active labor
- C. Over-the-counter pain relievers
- D. No pain relief options
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia is a common and effective pain management option during labor, tailored to the client's needs.
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The nurse monitors which vital sign closely in a client with gestational diabetes?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Pulse rate
- D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood pressure monitoring is crucial in gestational diabetes, as it increases the risk of preeclampsia.
The client delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago after being induced with oxytocin. While being assisted to the bathroom to void for the first time after delivery, the client tells the nurse that she doesn’t feel a need to urinate. Which explanation should the nurse provide when the client expresses surprise after voiding 900 mL of urine?
- A. “A decreased sensation of bladder filling is normal after childbirth.”
- B. “The oxytocin you received in labor makes it difficult to feel voiding.”
- C. “You probably didn’t empty completely. I will need to scan your bladder.”
- D. “Your bladder capacity is large; you likely won’t void again for 6—8 hours.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should explain about the decreased sensation of bladder filling after childbirth. It is not uncommon for the postpartum client to have increased bladder capacity, decreased sensitivity to fluid pressure, and a decreased sensation of bladder filling. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is not expected to cause a change in bladder sensation, but it does have an antidiuretic effect. There is no indication that the client didn’t completely empty; a volume of 900 mL is a large amount. The postpartum client is at risk for bladder overdistention and should be encouraged to void every 2 to 4 hours.
The nurse is screening prenatal clients who may be carriers for potential genetic abnormalities. Which ethnic group should the nurse identify as having the lowest risk for hemoglobinopathies, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia?
- A. African descent
- B. Southeast Asian descent
- C. Scandinavian descent
- D. Mediterranean descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals of Scandinavian descent are not an identified risk group for hemoglobinopathies. Individuals of African descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening. Individuals of Southeast Asian descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening. Individuals of Mediterranean descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening.
The pregnant client presents with Drag and Drop contractions that she describes as strong in intensity. Her cervical exam indicates that she is dilated to 3 cm. Which conclusion should the nurse make based on this information?
- A. The client is experiencing early labor.
- B. The client is experiencing false labor.
- C. The client has experienced cervical ripening.
- D. The client has experienced lightening.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Early labor is a pattern of labor that occurs when contractions become Drag and Drop and the cervix dilates to 3 cm. False labor occurs when Braxton-Hicks contractions are strong enough for the client to believe she is in actual labor. The contractions are infrequent or do not have a definite pattern. The lack of cervical change is also consistent with false labor. The latent phase is characterized by Drag and Drop contractions, although fetal descent may not occur. Cervical ripening (softening, effacement, and increased distensibility) begins about 4 weeks before birth. There is no information in the stem about cervical ripening. Lightening is settling or lowering of the fetus into the pelvis. Lightening can occur a few weeks or a few hours before labor. There is no information in the stem about lightening.
According to the TPAL method, which of the following reflects the client's obstetric history?
- A. T-III, P-0, A-0, L-III
- B. T-III, P-II, A-0, L-0
- C. T-III, P-II, A-0, L-II
- D. T-III, P-0, A-0, L-III
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TPAL: Term (3, one son and twin daughters), Preterm (0), Abortions (0), Living (3). The client has three term deliveries and three living children.
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