Nokea
The nurse receives a prescription from the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) for metoprolol 5 mL intravenous (IV) push x 1 dose. The nurse should take which priority action before administering the medication?
- A. Clarify the prescription with the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)
- B. Assess vital signs
- C. Review the prescription with the pharmacist
- D. Assess the client's allergies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoprolol IV push prescriptions require clarification to ensure correct dosage and administration rate.
You may also like to solve these questions
What would be the nurse's best response to the client's expressed feelings of isolation as a result of having hepatitis?
- A. Don't worry. It's normal to feel that way.'
- B. Your friends are probably afraid of contracting hepatitis from you.'
- C. I'm sure you're imagining that!'
- D. Tell me more about your feelings of isolation.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express feelings (D) promotes therapeutic communication and understanding. Dismissing feelings (A, C) or assuming others' fears (B) is non-therapeutic.
The nurse is taking care of a client with a spinal cord injury. The extent of the client's injury is shown below. Which of the following findings is expected when assessing this client?
- A. Inability to move his arms.
- B. Loss of sensation in his hands and fingers.
- C. Incontinence of bowel and bladder.
- D. Spasticity of the lower extremities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Incontinence is expected with spinal cord injuries due to disruption of neural control over bowel and bladder.
A 40-year-old female is losing most of her hair as a result of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements best explains chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
- A. The new growth of hair will be gray.
- B. The hair loss is temporary.
- C. A new hair growth will always be the same texture and color as it was before chemotherapy.
- D. The client should avoid use of wigs when possible.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced alopecia is temporary, with hair typically regrowing within months after treatment ends, which is a reassuring and accurate explanation.
A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client is presently complaining of indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/minute per nasal cannula. The nurse's next action would be to:
- A. Call for the physician.
- B. Start an I.V. line.
- C. Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
- D. Draw blood for laboratory studies.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Indigestion in a client with cardiac risk factors may indicate an MI. Calling the physician promptly ensures rapid evaluation and intervention, such as ECG or medications.
In addition to nausea and severe flank pain, a female client with renal calculi has pain in the groin and bladder. The nurse should assess the client further for six years of:
- A. Nephritis.
- B. Referred pain.
- C. Urine retention.
- D. Additional stone formation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Groin and bladder pain in renal calculi often indicate referred pain from the stone's movement or irritation along the urinary tract.