The nurse requests a meal tray for a client who follows Mormon beliefs and who is on a clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which menu items should the nurse request for this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. apple juice
- B. black coffee
- C. orange juice
- D. hot chocolate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: apple juice. Clear liquids like apple juice and orange juice are suitable for a client following a clear liquid diet and Mormon beliefs. Options B and D, black coffee and hot chocolate, contain caffeine, which may not align with the client's religious dietary restrictions. Therefore, these options should be avoided for this client.
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A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?
- A. Notify the patient's health care provider.
- B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
- C. Review the magnesium level on the patient's chart.
- D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient's current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?
- A. Plan low-carbohydrate and high-protein meals
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
- D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 30 indicates the patient is obese. The first step in a weight loss plan should be to keep a food journal to track calorie intake, which can help in meal planning and creating a workout routine. Choice (A) suggests a dietary approach, which is important but not the first step. Choice (B) recommends strenuous activity, which may not be suitable for everyone and is not the initial step. Choice (D) involves group exercise, which can be beneficial but is not the primary action to take at the beginning of a weight loss plan.
While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Force oral fluids
- B. Request a nutrition consult
- C. Initiate contact precautions
- D. Limit visitors to immediate family only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
- C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
- D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.
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