The nurse reviews the chart of the client diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma. Which documented finding should the nurse question with the HCP?
- A. Sudden onset of eye pain
- B. Reduced central visual acuity
- C. Normal intraocular pressure
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Closed-angle glaucoma causes an increased, not normal, intraocular pressure. This documentation finding should be questioned. Sudden eye pain, reduced central visual acuity, and nausea and vomiting are consistent with closed-angle glaucoma.
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The client recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'I'm having difficulty remembering to insert my eye drops. I don't have any pain or vision changes when I forget them.' Which statement is the best response?
- A. You should be diligent in inserting the eye drops; if not, then you will need surgery.
- B. You wouldn't have pain, but untreated glaucoma will eventually lead to vision loss.
- C. Tell me about your day; planning a time with a daily activity often helps as a reminder.
- D. I know this must be hard for you; not everyone is able to remember everything.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This is a broad opening statement and can assist the client to problem-solve an activity that could serve as a reminder to take the eye drops. The other statements are either belittling, partially incorrect, or do not help with adherence.
The client tells the nurse about being diagnosed with 'wet type' macular degeneration. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe when examining the client's eyes using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Growth of abnormal blood vessels in the macula has occurred.
- B. Structures in the macula have atrophied.
- C. The lens of the eye has become cloudy.
- D. The edge of the cornea has a thin grayish arc.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 'wet type' of macular degeneration results from the growth of abnormal blood vessels in the macula. The blood vessels often leak fluid and blood. Atrophy occurs in dry macular degeneration, cloudy lens indicates cataract, and corneal arcus is a normal finding in older clients.
The client recently diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) in both eyes returns to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. Which assessment will the nurse be certain to include during the visit?
- A. Stools for occult blood
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Screening for depression
- D. Screening for hearing loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should assess for depression because loss of vision can affect functional ability, mood, and quality of life. Depression frequently develops within a few months after AMD is diagnosed in both eyes. GI bleeding, blood glucose, and hearing loss are not directly related to AMD.
The client with severe otitis media and mastoiditis is prescribed levofloxacin IV, 250 mg every 12 hours. The medication is diluted in 100 mL of NS. To deliver the antibiotic in 30 minutes, the nurse must infuse the solution at a rate of how many mL per hour?
- A. 200
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The rate of IV infusion is calculated as follows: 100 mL over 30 minutes equals X mL over 60 minutes. Thus, 100/30 = X/60, so X = (100 × 60) / 30 = 200 mL/hr.
The student nurse asks the nurse, 'Which type of hearing loss involves damage to the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve?' Which statement is the best response of the nurse?
- A. It is called conductive hearing loss.
- B. It is called a functional hearing loss.
- C. It is called a mixed hearing loss.
- D. It is called sensorineural hearing loss.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sensorineural hearing loss involves cochlear or vestibulocochlear nerve damage. Conductive loss affects the outer/middle ear, functional loss is psychological, and mixed involves both.
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