Nokea
The nurse reviews various treatment options with the group members. Which of the following are considered most therapeutic in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? Select all that apply.
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as fluvoxamine (Luvox)
- B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- D. Surgical prefrontal lobotomy
- E. Tranquilizers such as diazepam (Valium)
- F. A self-help class on the Internet
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: SSRIs and cognitive-behavioral therapy, particularly exposure and response prevention, are evidence-based treatments for OCD, targeting symptoms effectively.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which response by the nurse is best in this situation?
- A. That is something to discuss with your physician.
- B. It sounds like you're feeling discouraged.
- C. But you're about your lack of progress.
- D. You need to practice a little more patience.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging discouragement validates the client's feelings, fostering therapeutic communication and emotional support.
The client who recently emigrated from Iran is on the mental health unit and has been placed in seclusion. The nurse assesses that the client is now calm and ready to be assimilated back into the mental health milieu. Which action by the nurse demonstrates cultural insensitivity?
- A. Gives the client a thumbs-up gesture
- B. Avoids looking at the clock or a watch
- C. Has the NA bring the client a cup of tea
- D. Offers to bring the client the book of Quran
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A thumbs-up (A) is offensive in Iranian culture akin to a vulgar gesture. Avoiding clocks (B) offering tea (C) and providing the Quran (D) are culturally appropriate.
The nurse is caring for the client who is 2 days postadmission to a medical unit and has a long history of heavy alcohol abuse. The nurse should monitor for which acute complications related to alcohol abuse? Select all that apply.
- A. Seizures
- B. Pancreatitis
- C. GI bleeding
- D. Exophthalmos
- E. Delirium tremens
Correct Answer: A ,B ,C, E
Rationale: Seizures (A) pancreatitis (B) GI bleeding (C) and delirium tremens (E) are acute risks. Exophthalmos (D) is unrelated.
The client receiving treatment for substance dependence has not been attending group therapy. Which response by the nurse to confront this behavior is best?
- A. “Why don’t you want to go to group therapy? Other users are there waiting for you to attend.”
- B. “Talking about personal issues with others can be difficult. Try talking to the therapist alone.”
- C. “Therapy is important to your treatment. You need to attend therapy if you want to get better.”
- D. “You say you want to get better but you are not actively participating in your treatment plan.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confronting nonattendance nonjudgmentally (D) addresses denial. “Why” questions (A) suggesting alternatives (B) or threats (C) are less effective.
The 19-year-old is given a court order to enter treatment for cocaine abuse. The client threatens to leave the treatment facility AMA. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates an accurate understanding of the client’s options?
- A. “The client is of legal age and can leave on his own will; we can’t stop him from leaving.”
- B. “Due to the court order the client is not allowed to leave and will be placed in seclusion.”
- C. “The client is allowed to leave as long as the court is informed; I’ll prepare the documents.”
- D. “The client cannot leave and will be returned to treatment or another option by court order.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Court-ordered clients cannot leave voluntarily (D). Age (A) is irrelevant seclusion (B) is illegal informing court (C) doesn’t allow leaving.