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A nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive and is one day postoperative following an appendectomy. The nurse should wear a gown as personal protective equipment when taking which of the following actions?
- A. Changing the client's linens
- B. Administering oral medications
- C. Taking vital signs
- D. Completing a dressing change
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Completing a dressing change. When completing a dressing change for a client who is HIV positive and postoperative, the nurse should wear a gown as personal protective equipment to prevent potential exposure to blood or body fluids. This is crucial for infection control and to protect both the nurse and the client.
Choice A: Changing the client's linens does not necessarily require wearing a gown unless there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.
Choice B: Administering oral medications does not require wearing a gown as there is no risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.
Choice C: Taking vital signs also does not require wearing a gown unless there is a possibility of exposure to blood or body fluids during the procedure.
In summary, completing a dressing change involves the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids, hence the need for wearing a gown. Other actions listed do not carry the same level of risk, therefore do not require the use of a gown as personal protective
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A nurse is assessing a client who reports numbness and pain in his right palm, index finger, and middle finger. The client reports working with a keyboard most of the time while at work. The nurse suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests should the nurse request that the client perform?
- A. Hold the wrist at a 90-degree flexion.
- B. Perform a straight leg raise test.
- C. Tap the wrist for tenderness.
- D. Hold the arm in an elevated position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the wrist at a 90-degree flexion. This test, known as the Phalen's test, is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. By holding the wrist in a flexed position for about 60 seconds, the test can reproduce symptoms of numbness and tingling in the affected fingers. This occurs due to increased pressure on the median nerve, which is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Performing a straight leg raise test is used to assess for sciatic nerve irritation in the lower back, not carpal tunnel syndrome.
C: Tapping the wrist for tenderness is not a specific test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
D: Holding the arm in an elevated position is not a recognized test for carpal tunnel syndrome and would not provide relevant information in this context.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
- B. Avoid sexual activity for the first 6 months.
- C. Use a menstrual pad for vaginal bleeding.
- D. Use a diaphragm for contraception.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness. The rationale for this is that after a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, there is a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to vaginal dryness and itching. Using artificial lubrication can help alleviate these symptoms and improve comfort.
Choice B is incorrect as there is no need to avoid sexual activity for 6 months unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as there should not be vaginal bleeding after a total abdominal hysterectomy. Choice D is incorrect as using a diaphragm for contraception is not recommended after a hysterectomy.
A nurse is monitoring a client who was admitted with a severe burn injury and is receiving IV fluid resuscitation therapy. The nurse should identify a decrease in which of the following findings as an indication of adequate fluid replacement?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Urine output
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. A decrease in heart rate indicates adequate fluid replacement in a burn-injured patient due to improved cardiac output and perfusion. When fluid resuscitation is effective, the heart doesn't need to work as hard to maintain circulation. Blood pressure (choice A) may fluctuate initially but is not a reliable indicator of fluid replacement alone. Urine output (choice C) is important but may take time to stabilize. Respiratory rate (choice D) may be affected by pain or stress, not solely fluid status. Other choices are not relevant.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a cardiopulmonary arrest. The nurse anticipates the emergency response team will administer which of the following medications if the client's restored rhythm is symptomatic bradycardia?
- A. Atropine
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Magnesium
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Atropine is the correct answer because it is the first-line medication for symptomatic bradycardia. It works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate. Epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest, not bradycardia. Magnesium is for torsades de pointes, not bradycardia. Sodium bicarbonate is for metabolic acidosis, not bradycardia.
A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who has prolonged vomiting. Which of the following abnormalities on the client's EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hypokalemia?
- A. Abnormally prominent U wave
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Flattened P wave
- D. Prolonged PR interval
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormally prominent U wave. In hypokalemia, low potassium levels can lead to U wave prominence on an EKG. The U wave becomes more visible and prominent due to delayed repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. This is a classic EKG finding in hypokalemia. Tachycardia (choice B) is a non-specific finding and can be caused by various conditions. Flattened P wave (choice C) is seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (choice D) is more indicative of first-degree heart block or other conduction abnormalities, not specifically hypokalemia.