An elderly client receiving IV fluids of 0.9% NaCl at 125 cc/h into her left arm. During a routine assessment, the nurse finds that the client has distended neck veins, shortness of breath, and crackles in both lung bases.
The nurse should
- A. decrease the IV rate to 20 cc/h and notify the physician.
- B. decrease the IV rate to 100 cc/h and continue to monitor the client.
- C. discontinue the IV and start oxygen at 6 L/min.
- D. assess for infiltration of the IV solution.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is the assessment appropriate? No. Determine the outcome of each implementation. (1) correct-KVO (20 cc/h) will keep access open (2) need to notify physician, rate still too much since patient is in fluid overload (3) IV line may be necessary, diuretics may be ordered (4) description indicates circulatory overload, not infiltration
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is preparing a client for a herniorrhaphy. It would be MOST important for the nurse to complete which of the following one hour prior to surgery?
- A. Administer an enema.
- B. Confirm that the consent form has been signed.
- C. Perform a preoperative shave and scrub.
- D. Evaluate for food or medication allergies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: surgical consent should be rechecked prior to going to surgery
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
- A. Which instruction is most appropriate for a client with GERD?
- B. Eat large meals to reduce acid production.
- C. Lie down immediately after eating.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed during sleep.
- E. Avoid drinking water with meals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed during sleep prevents acid reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents down. Large meals and lying down post-meal worsen reflux, and water is neutral.
The nurse is preparing a patient for an 8:00 AM outpatient electroconvulsive (ECT) treatment. Which of the following questions is the MOST important for the nurse to ask?
- A. Did you have anything to eat or drink before you came in today?
- B. Have you had any headaches since your last treatment?
- C. Who came with you to the hospital today?
- D. Have you had much memory loss since you began your treatments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: client given general anesthesia for ECT; NPO after midnight
At approximately 6 PM, the nurse begins to open the nurses' notes for the evening shift. The last entry is noted for 1 PM, and there is no signature. The MOST appropriate nursing response is to
- A. leave approximately three or four lines for the day nurse to enter the day information and sign the chart.
- B. review with the client the activities after 1 PM, and enter what are determined to be the activities after 1 PM.
- C. begin charting on the next line below the last entry, and make a note for the day nurse to make a late entry to complete the chart.
- D. do not enter anything until the day nurse has been notified of the problem and returns to the unit to complete charting.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: day nurse can make a 'late entry' to add any additional information
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of type 2 diabetes who is receiving glipizide (Glucotrol) 5 mg PO daily. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Mild fatigue.
- B. Sweating and shakiness.
- C. Occasional thirst.
- D. Mild headache.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sweating and shakiness indicate hypoglycemia, a serious glipizide side effect. Options A, C, and D are less urgent.
Nokea