Nokea
The nurse should identify the cardiac rhythm as which of the following?
- A. Ventricular asystole
- B. Second-degree heart block
- C. Sinus Tachycard
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and rapid heart rate. This can be identified on an ECG by the absence of distinct P waves and irregular R-R intervals. Ventricular asystole (A) is the absence of ventricular contractions, second-degree heart block (B) is characterized by intermittent conduction block between the atria and ventricles, and sinus tachycardia (C) is a regular rapid heart rate originating from the sinus node.
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Which finding should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Heart rate 140/min
- B. Capillary refill 3 seconds
- C. Cessation of nocturnal enuresis
- D. Absence of hypoglycemic episodes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cessation of nocturnal enuresis. This indicates the medication is effective because it shows improvement in the condition being treated, which in this case is nocturnal enuresis. Nocturnal enuresis is the involuntary passage of urine during sleep and it can be a result of various factors such as hormonal imbalance or bladder control issues. Therefore, if the medication is effective, it should lead to the cessation of this symptom.
Heart rate (A) and capillary refill (B) are not necessarily indicators of the effectiveness of the medication in treating nocturnal enuresis. Absence of hypoglycemic episodes (D) is more related to diabetes management rather than nocturnal enuresis.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Pain at the surgical site
- C. Mild nausea
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea in a postoperative client with a history of pulmonary embolism indicates a potential complication, such as a recurrent or new pulmonary embolism, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Pain at the surgical site (choice B) is expected postoperatively and can be managed with appropriate pain medications. Mild nausea (choice C) is a common postoperative symptom and can be managed with antiemetic medications. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) (choice D) may indicate a mild fever, which can be monitored unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
The nurse should recognize which of the following clinical manifestations as an indication of scoliosis?
- A. Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights
- B. Symmetrical scapulae
- C. Equal leg lengths
- D. Straight spinal alignment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights are indicative of scoliosis due to the lateral curvature of the spine. Symmetrical scapulae, equal leg lengths, and straight spinal alignment are not typical signs of scoliosis. Symmetrical scapulae and equal leg lengths suggest normal alignment, while straight spinal alignment does not reflect the characteristic curvature seen in scoliosis cases. Therefore, identifying uneven shoulder and pelvic heights is crucial in recognizing scoliosis.
After the nurse indicates chest pain protocol, which of the following is the priority diagnostic test?
- A. PT and INR
- B. 12 lead ECG
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. D-dimer test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest X-ray. When a patient presents with chest pain, a chest X-ray is crucial to evaluate for any acute cardiopulmonary conditions like pneumonia, pneumothorax, or aortic dissection. It helps identify any immediate life-threatening issues that require prompt intervention. PT and INR (A) are coagulation tests not typically indicated for acute chest pain. A 12-lead ECG (B) is important but usually done after the chest X-ray to assess for cardiac abnormalities. D-dimer test (D) is used to rule out pulmonary embolism, but it is not the priority test in the initial evaluation of chest pain.
The nurse is initiating the client's plan of care. Which of the following Interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Provide a low-stimulation environment.
- B. Maintain bed rest.
- C. Give antihypertensive medication.
- D. Administer betamethasone
- E. Monitor intake and output hourly.
- F. Obtain a 24 hr urine specimen.
- G. Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct answer includes providing a low-stimulation environment (A) for client comfort, maintaining bed rest (B) to promote healing, giving antihypertensive medication (C) for blood pressure management, administering betamethasone (D) for specific medical needs, monitoring intake and output hourly (E) for fluid balance assessment, and obtaining a 24 hr urine specimen (F) for diagnostic purposes. These interventions are essential in addressing the client's physical and physiological needs during care planning. Performing a vaginal examination every 12 hr (G) is not typically indicated and may not be necessary unless specifically ordered for a particular condition.