Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is alert and oriented and is receiving continuous ECG monitoring. The cardiac rhythm strips shows a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate.
The nurse should identify the cardiac rhythm as which of the following?
- A. Ventricular asystole
- B. Second-degree heart block
- C. Sinus Tachycard
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and rapid heart rate. This can be identified on an ECG by the absence of distinct P waves and irregular R-R intervals. Ventricular asystole (A) is the absence of ventricular contractions, second-degree heart block (B) is characterized by intermittent conduction block between the atria and ventricles, and sinus tachycardia (C) is a regular rapid heart rate originating from the sinus node.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory test to the provider to obtain a prescription for warfarin.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
A nurse is assessing the grief response of a client whose child died six months ago.
Which client statement should the nurse report as an indication of major depressive disorder?
- A. I am unable to feel any joy since my child died
- B. I have lost interest in activities I once enjoyed.
- C. I have trouble sleeping and have no appetite.
- D. I feel guilty and worthless every day.
- E. I have been thinking about ending my own life.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because suicidal ideation is a significant red flag for major depressive disorder. This statement indicates severe emotional distress and potential risk for self-harm. Choices A, B, C, and D are common symptoms of depression but do not necessarily point to the severity and immediate risk of suicide like choice E does. Reporting suicidal thoughts is crucial for timely intervention and ensuring the client's safety.
A nurse is consulting A pharmacological reference about medication compatibility prior to administering warfarin to a client.
Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as being incompatible with warfarin?
- A. Naproxen
- B. Metformin
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Albuterol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naproxen. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, an anticoagulant. This is due to their combined effects on blood clotting. Metformin, Lisinopril, and Albuterol do not have a significant interaction with warfarin in terms of bleeding risk. Therefore, the nurse should identify Naproxen as incompatible with warfarin to prevent potential adverse effects.
Admission Assessment
Client reports new onset of fever and discomfort in their joints and increase malaise. No relevant
medical history. Client is alert to person, place, time, and situation. Reports generalized pain as 4
on a scale of 0 to 10. Macular rash present on cheeks bilateral. Lungs clear anterior and posterior.
Bowel sounds active in all 4 quadrants. Last bowel movement 1 day ago. Skin warm, dry, and
intact. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. A 20-gauge IV saline lock inserted in back left hand
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing.
- A. Ensure that client has intake of at least 200mL/hr
- B. Initiate contact precautions
- C. Prepare client for light therapy
- D. Sickle cell crisis
- E. Psoriasis
- F. Osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Increased fluid intake and contact precautions are essential for managing systemic lupus erythematosus.
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and requires posterior drainage.
Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform the procedure prior to meals.
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy immediately after feeding.
- C. Place the child in a supine position for the procedure.
- D. Limit fluid intake before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform the procedure prior to meals. This is because performing the procedure before meals helps prevent potential complications such as aspiration during feeding. By emptying the stomach before meals, the risk of regurgitation and aspiration is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chest physiotherapy immediately after feeding can increase the risk of aspiration, placing the child in a supine position can also increase the risk of aspiration, and limiting fluid intake before the procedure may lead to dehydration and is not necessary for this specific procedure.