The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:
- A. Tumor size
- B. Axillary node status
- C. Client's previous history of disease
- D. Client's level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. The client's previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fed from an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
When caring for a postoperative cholecystectomy client, the nurse assesses patency and documents drainage of the T-tube. The nurse recognizes that the expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours postoperatively is:
- A. 50-100 mL
- B. 200-300 mL
- C. 300-500 mL
- D. 1000-1200 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the first 24 hours after surgery, the drainage is normally 300-500 mL and then decreases to about 200 mL in 24 hours during the next 3-4 days. This range is the amount of drainage after the first 24 hours postoperatively. During the first 24 hours, it is 300-500 mL. During the first 24 hours after surgery, this range is the expected amount of drainage. The expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours is 300-500 mL. An output of >500 mL should be reported to the physician, because an occlusion of some type, caused by a retained gallstone or an inflammatory process within the biliary drainage system, is evident.
A 27-year-old healthy primigravida is brought to the labor and birthing room by her husband at 32 weeks' gestation. She experienced a sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding. Following an ultrasound examination, the diagnosis of bleeding secondary to complete placenta previa is made. Expected assessment findings concerning the abdomen would include:
- A. A rigid, boardlike abdomen
- B. Uterine atony
- C. A soft relaxed abdomen
- D. Hypertonicity of the uterus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rigid, boardlike abdomen is an assessment finding indicative of placenta abruptio. A cause of postbirth hemorrhage is uterine atony. With placenta previa, uterine tone is within normal range. The placenta is located directly over the cervical os in complete previa. Blood will escape through the os, resulting in the uterus and abdomen remaining soft and relaxed. In placenta abruptio, hypertonicity of the uterus is caused by the entrapment of blood between the placenta and uterine wall, a retroplacental bleed. This does not exist in placenta previa.
The postpartum nurse should include which of the following instructions to breast-feeding mothers?
- A. Limit feeding times for several days to avoid nipple soreness.
- B. Wash the nipples with soap and water before and after each feeding.
- C. Daily caloric intake should be increased by 500 cal.
- D. Breast milk is totally digestible by the baby because it contains lactose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Limiting initial feeding times will only delay nipple soreness as well as the establishment of the letdown reflex, thus encouraging engorgement from clogged ducts and ductules. Soap should be avoided because it may be excessively drying, predisposing nipples to cracking. For optimal milk production, an additional 500 kcal over maintenance levels are needed daily. Lipase, not lactose, emulsifies the fat in breast milk, making it almost totally digestible by infants.
The physician has ordered a 24-hour urine collection for a client. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Discard the first void and then collect all urine for 24 hours.'
- B. Collect all urine in a single container for 24 hours.'
- C. Refrigerate each void separately before combining.'
- D. Collect only the first and last voids of the day.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine is collected for exactly 24 hours to ensure accurate measurement of analytes. A single container is used, refrigeration is advised, but separate voids are not needed.
A client with pregnancy-induced hypertension is scheduled for a C-section. Before surgery, the nurse should keep the client:
- A. On her right side
- B. Supine with a small pillow
- C. On her left side
- D. In knee chest position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The left lateral position improves uteroplacental blood flow in pregnancy-induced hypertension, reducing fetal distress risk. Right-sided, supine, or knee-chest positions are less optimal.
Nokea