The nurse should recognize which of the following clinical manifestations as an indication of scoliosis?
- A. Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights
- B. Symmetrical scapulae
- C. Equal leg lengths
- D. Straight spinal alignment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights are indicative of scoliosis due to the lateral curvature of the spine. Symmetrical scapulae, equal leg lengths, and straight spinal alignment are not typical signs of scoliosis. Symmetrical scapulae and equal leg lengths suggest normal alignment, while straight spinal alignment does not reflect the characteristic curvature seen in scoliosis cases. Therefore, identifying uneven shoulder and pelvic heights is crucial in recognizing scoliosis.
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For each potential assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with chorioamnionitis or preeclampsia. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
Note: Each column must have at least 1 response option selected.
- A. Elevated uric acid level
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Decreased platelet count
- D. Purulent amniotic fluid
- E. Fever
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Findings like fever, purulent amniotic fluid, decreased platelets, and elevated uric acid support chorioamnionitis. Blurred vision is more indicative of preeclampsia.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Digoxen 250 PO daily
- B. Metoprolol 50 mg PO twice daily
- C. Furosemide 40 mg IV once daily
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Digoxin is commonly prescribed in mcg, not mg. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the dosage unit. Metoprolol (B) is a typical dose and frequency for oral administration. Furosemide (C) is a standard dose and route for IV administration. Acetaminophen (D) is a common dose and frequency for pain management. The other choices are not problematic.
The nurse should identify the cardiac rhythm as which of the following?
- A. Ventricular asystole
- B. Second-degree heart block
- C. Sinus Tachycard
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and rapid heart rate. This can be identified on an ECG by the absence of distinct P waves and irregular R-R intervals. Ventricular asystole (A) is the absence of ventricular contractions, second-degree heart block (B) is characterized by intermittent conduction block between the atria and ventricles, and sinus tachycardia (C) is a regular rapid heart rate originating from the sinus node.
The nurse is initiating the client's plan of care. Which of the following Interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Provide a low-stimulation environment.
- B. Maintain bed rest.
- C. Give antihypertensive medication.
- D. Administer betamethasone
- E. Monitor intake and output hourly.
- F. Obtain a 24 hr urine specimen.
- G. Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct answer includes providing a low-stimulation environment (A) for client comfort, maintaining bed rest (B) to promote healing, giving antihypertensive medication (C) for blood pressure management, administering betamethasone (D) for specific medical needs, monitoring intake and output hourly (E) for fluid balance assessment, and obtaining a 24 hr urine specimen (F) for diagnostic purposes. These interventions are essential in addressing the client's physical and physiological needs during care planning. Performing a vaginal examination every 12 hr (G) is not typically indicated and may not be necessary unless specifically ordered for a particular condition.
Which of the following food choices is appropriate for this client?
- A. Canned barley soup
- B. Potato pancakes.
- C. Wheat crackers
- D. White flour tortillas
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potato pancakes. This choice is appropriate as it is likely to be well-tolerated by the client. Potatoes are a good source of carbohydrates and can provide energy. Additionally, potato pancakes are easy to digest and can be a good option for someone with digestive issues. On the other hand, A, C, and D contain grains that may be harder to digest for some individuals, especially if they have digestive concerns. Canned barley soup (A) may also contain added preservatives and sodium, which may not be ideal for the client's condition. Wheat crackers (C) can be high in fiber and may be difficult to digest. White flour tortillas (D) are made from refined grains and may not provide the necessary nutrients for the client.