Nokea
The nurse suspects the adolescent is experiencing pelvic inflammatory disease and is planning care. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for---------------------- and ------------------
- A. doxycydline
- B. acyclovir
- C. imiquimod
- D. fluconazole
- E. ceftriaxone
- F. Providing education on medications
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: The correct answer is A, E, and F. Pelvic inflammatory disease is commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. The recommended treatment involves antibiotics like doxycycline (A) and ceftriaxone (E) to target these infections. Providing education on medications (F) is essential to ensure compliance and understanding of the treatment regimen. Acyclovir (B) is used to treat herpes infections, not PID. Imiquimod (C) is used for certain skin conditions, not PID. Fluconazole (D) is an antifungal medication, not typically used for PID treatment.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Frequent vomiting with weight loss of 3 lb in 1 week.
- B. Reports of mood swings.
- C. Nosebleeds occurring approximately 3 times per week.
- D. Increased vaginal discharge.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Frequent vomiting with weight loss of 3 lb in 1 week can indicate hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding is concerning and requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Reporting this to the provider allows for timely intervention.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: Reports of mood swings are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and are not typically a cause for immediate concern.
C: Nosebleeds occurring approximately 3 times per week can be due to increased blood flow during pregnancy and are usually not a significant concern unless severe or persistent.
D: Increased vaginal discharge is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It is not typically an urgent issue unless accompanied by other symptoms like itching or foul odor.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is to have an amniotomy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. O2 saturation.
- B. Temperature.
- C. Blood pressure.
- D. Urinary output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Temperature. During an amniotomy, there is a risk of infection due to the introduction of bacteria into the amniotic fluid. Monitoring the client's temperature is crucial as an elevated temperature could indicate infection, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. O2 saturation (A), blood pressure (C), and urinary output (D) are important assessments but not the priority in this situation. O2 saturation is typically monitored continuously during labor, blood pressure can fluctuate during labor but is not directly impacted by amniotomy, and urinary output is important for assessing hydration status but does not take precedence over monitoring for infection.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is requesting epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in a supine position for 30 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- D. Ensure the client has been NPO 4 hr prior to the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Rationale: Continuous monitoring of blood pressure is crucial after administering epidural anesthesia to detect any potential hypotension, a common side effect. This frequent monitoring allows for prompt intervention if hypotension occurs, ensuring the client's safety. It is essential to closely monitor the client's vital signs, particularly blood pressure, to prevent complications such as decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress.
Summary:
A: Placing the client in a supine position for 30 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution is not recommended as it can lead to aortocaval compression and compromise blood flow to the fetus.
B: Administering dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution is not necessary for epidural anesthesia.
D: Ensuring the client has been NPO 4 hr prior to the placement of the epidural is
A nurse is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hr old and has erythema toxicum on their face.
- B. A newborn who is 32 hr old and has not passed a meconium stool.
- C. A newborn who is 12 hr old and has pink-tinged urine.
- D. A newborn who is 18 hr old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours after birth can indicate a possible intestinal obstruction or other issues that need immediate attention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choices A, C, and D are normal findings in newborns and do not require immediate reporting. E, F, and G are not applicable in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing renal perfusion. A urine output of 280 mL in 8 hours is low, indicating possible renal impairment. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum and receiving IV fluids. Blood pressure of 105/64 mm Hg is acceptable, heart rate of 98/min is slightly elevated but not alarming, and urine negative for ketones indicates adequate fluid replacement.