Nokea
The nurse suspects the adolescent is experiencing pelvic inflammatory disease and is planning care. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for ------------------------------ and --------------------------
- A. fuconazole
- B. doxycycline
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. acyclovir
- E. imiquimod
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: The correct answer is B (doxycycline) and C (Ceftriaxone). Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is commonly treated with antibiotics to target the infection. Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone are effective antibiotics for treating PID caused by common pathogens like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, while Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. These medications are commonly prescribed in combination to cover a broader spectrum of potential pathogens causing PID. Choice A (fuconazole) is an antifungal medication and is not appropriate for treating PID. Choice D (acyclovir) is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections, which are not associated with PID. Choice E (imiquimod) is an immune response modifier used for treating certain skin conditions and
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A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrict hourly fluid intake to 150 mL/hr.
- B. Have calcium gluconate readily available.
- C. Assess deep tendon reflexes every 6 hr.
- D. Monitor intake and output every 4 hr.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, so having it readily available is crucial for immediate administration if toxicity occurs. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should not be restricted in preeclampsia. Option C is incorrect as deep tendon reflexes should be assessed more frequently (every 1-2 hours) due to the risk of hypermagnesemia. Option D is incorrect as intake and output should be monitored hourly to detect any changes in renal function.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Swelling of the face
- B. Varicose veins in the calves
- C. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema
- D. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. This finding can indicate preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Preeclampsia poses risks to both the mother and the baby, so prompt reporting to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Varicose veins in the calves (B) are common in pregnancy due to increased pressure on the veins but do not require immediate provider notification. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema (C) is a common finding in pregnancy and is not typically concerning unless it worsens significantly. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks (D) is a common benign finding known as melasma and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of 90°
- C. Creases over the entire foot sole
- D. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Minimal arm recoil. In premature newborns born at 26 weeks of gestation, they typically exhibit minimal arm recoil due to their immature neuromuscular development. This is a key characteristic assessed in the New Ballard Score to determine the gestational age of the newborn. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected findings in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation. Popliteal angle of 90° (Choice B) is more typical in a term newborn. Creases over the entire foot sole (Choice C) are also more common in term newborns. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds (Choice D) are indicative of a more mature newborn and not typically seen in a premature newborn at 26 weeks of gestation.
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)
- A. Identify the attitude of the head.
- B. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
- C. Determine the location of the fetal back.
- D. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, A
Rationale: The correct order for performing Leopold maneuvers is B, C, D, A. Firstly, palpating the fundus (B) helps identify the fetal part. Next, determining the location of the fetal back (C) gives insight into the baby's position. Palpating for the fetal part at the inlet (D) helps determine the presenting part. Finally, identifying the attitude of the head (A) concludes the assessment. The other choices do not align with the sequential nature of Leopold maneuvers, making them incorrect.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Passive descent
- B. Active
- C. Early
- D. Descent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation (6-10 cm) and increased contractions with shorter intervals. The client's symptoms align with this phase as they are experiencing strong contractions close together, along with increased rectal pressure indicating descent of the fetus. Other choices are incorrect as: A (Passive descent) occurs during the second stage of labor; C (Early phase) is typically before 6 cm dilation; D (Descent) is not a recognized phase of labor.