The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?
- A. hepatitis A
- B. hepatitis B
- C. hepatitis C
- D. hepatitis D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.
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The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:
- A. completely relieve all pain.
- B. provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control.
- C. help the client to control symptoms.
- D. help the client actively participate in his or her care.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.
When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?
- A. blood urea nitrogen
- B. serum calcium
- C. serum ammonia
- D. serum creatinine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.
A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.
Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:
- A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
- B. Notify the nursing supervisor
- C. Notify the Board of Nursing
- D. Notify the director of nursing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.