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The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
- A. It increases heart rate
- B. It decreases fluid volume
- C. It decreases cardiac output
- D. It increases cardiac contractility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart.
2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility.
3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output.
Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
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A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?
- A. Avoiding using a soap on the irradiated areas
- B. Applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing
- C. Wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client
- D. Removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. Soap can irritate the skin and exacerbate the risk for impaired skin integrity in a client receiving radiation therapy. By avoiding soap, we minimize the risk of skin breakdown and promote skin healing.
B: Applying talcum powder can actually worsen skin irritation and should be avoided.
C: Wearing a lead apron is not relevant to the nursing diagnosis of risk for impaired skin integrity.
D: Removing thoracic skin markings is not necessary for skin integrity and may disrupt the treatment plan.
The nurse is assigned to a client with polymyositis. Which expected outcome in the plan of care relates to a potential problem associated with polymyositis?
- A. “Client will lose 2lb per week on a calorie-restricted diet.”
- B. “Client will exhibit no signs or symptoms of aspiration.”
- C. “Client will exhibit bowel and bladder continence.”
- D. “Client will exhibit alertness and orientation to person, place, and time.” DISTURBANCES IN IMMUNOLOGIC FUNCTIONING
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the question. Could you please provide the correct answer so that I can provide you with a detailed explanation of why it is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect?
A client was brought to the emergency room with complains of difficulty of breathing. What can lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
- A. paO2 of 95, pCO2 of 43, x-ray showing enlarged heart, bradycardia
- B. Thick green sputum production, paO2 of 74, pH of 7.41
- C. restlessness, suprasternal retractions, paO2 of 62
- D. wheezes, slow, deep respirations, pCO2 of 52, pH of 7.35
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C being correct:
1. Restlessness: Indicates increased work of breathing and hypoxia.
2. Suprasternal retractions: Sign of respiratory distress.
3. paO2 of 62: Indicates severe hypoxemia, common in ARDS.
Summary:
A: Enlarged heart on x-ray does not directly indicate ARDS.
B: Thick green sputum suggests infection, not specific to ARDS.
D: Wheezes and slow respirations are not typical of ARDS, and pCO2 is normal in ARDS.
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
- A. Immediately place the patient in isolation.
- B. Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction.
- C. Proceed to the termination phase of the interview.
- D. Document the latex allergy on the medication administration record.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. First, the nurse needs to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate interventions. Understanding the type of reaction can help guide treatment and prevent future exposure. Isolating the patient (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a severe reaction. Terminating the interview (choice C) prematurely is not appropriate as crucial information may be missed. Documenting the allergy (choice D) is important but not as urgent as assessing the reaction type.
Nurse Karen is caring for a client with chronic renal failure. Which is a correct intervention for hyperkalemia?
- A. assess patient for fever and chest pain
- B. assess patient for muscle weakness, diarrhea and ECG changes
- C. encourage compliance with fluid restriction
- D. prepare patient for cardiac ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hyperkalemia presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, diarrhea, and ECG changes. Muscle weakness is a common sign due to potassium's effect on neuromuscular function. Diarrhea can lead to potassium loss. ECG changes, such as peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes, indicate cardiac involvement. Assessing for these symptoms helps monitor the severity of hyperkalemia and guide treatment. Other choices are incorrect because assessing for fever and chest pain (choice A) are not specific to hyperkalemia. Encouraging fluid restriction (choice C) may not directly address hyperkalemia. Preparing for a cardiac ultrasound (choice D) is not an immediate intervention for hyperkalemia.