Nokea
The nurse who is beginning a shift on a cardiac step-down unit receives shift report for four clients. Prioritize the order, from most urgent to least urgent, that the nurse should assess the clients.
- A. The 56-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with chest pain receiving intravenous (IV) heparin and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due back in 30 minutes
- B. The 62-year-old client with end-stage cardiomyopathy, blood pressure (BP) of 78/50 mm Hg, 20 mL/hr urine output, and a “Do Not Resuscitate” order; whose family has just arrived
- C. The 72-year-old client who was transferred 2 hours ago from the intensive care unit (ICU) following a coronary artery bypass graft and has new-onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
- D. The 38-year-old postoperative client who had an aortic valve replacement 2 days ago, BP 114/72 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) 100 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) 28 breaths/min, and temperature 101.2°F (38.4°C)
Correct Answer: C;D;A;B
Rationale: The nurse should assess: C) Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is life-threatening; D) Elevated temperature and vital signs suggest infection; A) Heparin adjustment is pending but less urgent; B) End-stage cardiomyopathy with DNR is stable and family support is secondary.
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The nurse is assessing the client who underwent repair of an aortic aneurysm with graft placement 30 minutes ago. The nurse is unable to palpate the posterior tibial pulse of one leg that was palpable 15 minutes earlier. What should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes.
- B. Reposition the affected leg.
- C. Notify the surgeon of the finding.
- D. Document that the pulse is absent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should notify the surgeon immediately to reassess the client. The loss of the pulse could signify graft occlusion or embolization. Rechecking, repositioning, or documenting delays critical intervention.
While preparing the client for a computed tomography angiography (CTA), the client asks the nurse what the test Will entail. Which should be the nurse’s correct response?
- A. “A CTA uses magnetic fields to visualize the major vessels Within your body.”
- B. “A CTA is an invasive procedure that requires a small incision into an artery.”
- C. “A CTA is a quick procedure that requires anesthesia for about 20 minutes.”
- D. “A CTA is a scan that includes a contrast dye injection to visualize your arteries.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response should explain CTA. CTA is a noninvasive spiral CT scan using contrast dye to yield a 3-dimensional image of the arteries. It does not use magnetic fields (A), require incisions (B), or anesthesia (C).
The nurse is admitting the client experiencing dyspnea from HF and COPD with high CO2 levels. Which interventions should the nurse plan? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply oxygen 6 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 40 degrees.
- C. Weigh daily in the am. after the client voids.
- D. Teach client pursed-lip breathing techniques.
- E. Turn and reposition the client every 1 to 2 hours.
Correct Answer: B;C;D
Rationale: The nurse should plan: B) Elevating the head of the bed to promote lung expansion; C) Daily weights to assess fluid retention; D) Pursed-lip breathing to conserve energy and slow breathing. High oxygen flow (A) may depress hypoxic drive in COPD, and repositioning (E) is less specific to dyspnea management.
The nurse is completing a home visit with the client who has an arterial ulcer secondary to PAD. Which statement by the client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. “I soak my feet daily to warm them and keep them soft.”
- B. “I cover the sore on my foot with sterile gauze to protect it.”
- C. “I use a pillow under my calves to keep my heels off the bed.”
- D. “I lubricate my feet daily to prevent them from cracking.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should immediately intervene when the client states soaking feet daily; foot soaks when the client has PAD can cause maceration (tissue breakdown). Covering with gauze, using a pillow, and lubricating are appropriate actions.
The nurse is to administer 40 mg of furosemide to the client in HF. The prefilled syringe reads 100 mg/mL. In order to give the correct dose, how many milliliters should the nurse administer to the client?
Correct Answer: 0.4
Rationale: Use a proportion formula: 100 mg: 1 mL :: 40 mg: X mL; 100X = 40; X = 0.4. The nurse should administer 0.4 mL of furosemide.