Nokea
The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.
You may also like to solve these questions
While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?
- A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
- B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
- C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.
An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
- A. "I know you are capable of giving yourself the insulin."
- B. "Giving yourself the injection seems to make you nervous."
- C. "When I watched you give yourself the injection, you did it correctly."
- D. "Tell me what you want me to do to help you give yourself the injection at home."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.
When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.