Nokea
The nurse would expect which of the following would be included in the plan of care/
- A. Have the client drink at least 8 glases of water in the first day
- B. Administer NaHCO3 IV as per physician’s orders
- C. Continue sodium bicarbonate for nausea
- D. Monitor electrolytes for hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring electrolytes is essential to assess for potential imbalances due to the use of sodium bicarbonate, which can lead to hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
Step 2: Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
Step 3: By monitoring electrolytes, the nurse can detect imbalances early and intervene promptly to prevent adverse effects.
Summary:
A: Drinking excessive water can lead to electrolyte imbalances and is not directly related to the use of sodium bicarbonate.
B: Administering NaHCO3 IV is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should be done based on physician's orders.
C: Continuing sodium bicarbonate for nausea may not be appropriate without monitoring electrolytes to prevent potential imbalances.
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The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes mellitus is nonmodifiable?
- A. Poor control of blood glucose levels
- B. Current of recent foot trauma
- C. Inappropriate foot care
- D. Advanced age
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define nonmodifiable risk factors - these are factors that cannot be changed or controlled by the individual.
Step 2: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is determined by genetics and time.
Step 3: Poor control of blood glucose levels, foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes or medical interventions.
Summary: Choice D is correct because advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus, while the other choices involve factors that can be modified through appropriate actions.
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
- A. Adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal.
- B. Performing routine monitoring of the client’s condition.
- C. Administering medication as prescribed by the physician.
- D. Completing discharge paperwork for the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals.
Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
- A. Levodopa
- B. Selegilene
- C. Permax
- D. Symmetrel
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for treating Parkinson's disease because it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing the deficient dopamine levels in Parkinson's patients. Selegiline and Symmetrel are also used in treating Parkinson's, but they are typically used as adjunctive therapy rather than the primary treatment. Permax has been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an incorrect choice.
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
- A. Pain when talking
- B. Increased nasal swelling
- C. Burning in the throat
- D. Presence of laryngospasm INFECTIONS OF THE LOWER RESPIRATORY AIRWAY
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the testicle does not descend into the scrotum during fetal development, increasing the risk of cancer development. Testosterone therapy during childhood (A) and early onset of puberty (B) are not directly linked to testicular cancer. Sexually transmitted diseases (C) typically do not increase the risk of testicular cancer. Therefore, choice D is the most relevant risk factor for testicular cancer in this scenario.