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The nursing approach that will minimize power struggles between the client with an eating disorder and the nurse is best characterized as:
- A. authoritarian and autocratic.
- B. laid-back and flexible.
- C. rigid and unyielding.
- D. compassionate and firm.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: compassionate and firm. This approach balances empathy and boundaries, fostering trust and cooperation while maintaining structure. Compassion helps build rapport and understanding, essential for addressing the underlying issues of the eating disorder. Firmness sets clear limits and expectations, promoting accountability and progress. Authoritarian and autocratic (A) can create resistance and hinder therapeutic alliance. Laid-back and flexible (B) may enable unhealthy behaviors. Rigid and unyielding (C) can lead to power struggles and hinder therapeutic progress.
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Which of the following criteria can be used to define intellectual disabilities?
- A. Significantly below average intellectual functioning
- B. Impairments in adaptive functioning generally
- C. These deficits should be manifest before the age of 18 -years
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intellectual Disabilities: Defined by below-average intellectual functioning, adaptive impairments, and onset before age 18.
A child, age 5, was admitted to the children's unit, having been sexually abused by an acquaintance of her family. The child refuses to talk and participate in unit activities, choosing to stay in her room with her stuffed animals. Which therapeutic intervention will best help the child release pent-up feelings about the abuse?
- A. Individual communication with the nurse
- B. Play therapy
- C. Family therapy
- D. Role-play with other children on the unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Play therapy. Play therapy is the most suitable therapeutic intervention for a child in this scenario because it allows the child to express their feelings and experiences through play, which is a natural form of communication for children. Through play therapy, the child can act out their experiences using toys and create a safe space to process their emotions without having to verbally communicate. It helps the child release pent-up feelings and trauma in a non-threatening environment.
Summary of other choices:
A: Individual communication with the nurse may not be as effective as play therapy in this case as the child is not yet comfortable verbalizing their feelings.
C: Family therapy may not be appropriate at this stage as the child is not ready to engage with family members about the abuse.
D: Role-play with other children on the unit may not be beneficial as it can potentially trigger more anxiety and discomfort for the abused child.
A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?
- A. Echopraxia
- B. Waxy flexibility
- C. Depersonalization
- D. Thought withdrawal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Waxy flexibility involves maintaining a posture imposed by another person, as seen in the patient's arm staying raised. This behavior is indicative of catatonia, a symptom of severe mental illness. Echopraxia involves mimicking movements of others, not maintaining a position. Depersonalization is a feeling of detachment from oneself, not related to physical movements. Thought withdrawal pertains to a symptom in schizophrenia where thoughts are removed by an external force, not related to physical posture.
A 67-year-old woman recently noticed a non-painful lump in the right breast (see image). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Subacute mastitis with early abscess formation.
- B. Advanced adenocarcinoma of the breast.
- C. Early intraduct carcinoma with obstruction of ductal ampullae.
- D. Severe fibrocystic disease of the breast (fibroadenosis with multiple cysts).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A non-painful breast lump in a 67-year-old is most likely advanced adenocarcinoma (B), a common malignancy in this age group. Mastitis (A) is painful, early carcinoma (C) less likely advanced, and fibrocystic disease (D) or fat necrosis (E) are less typical without specific trauma or cysts.
An elderly patient brings a bag of medications to the clinic. The nurse finds a bottle labeled Ativan and one labeled lorazepam, both of which are to be taken BID. There are also bottles labeled hydrochlorothiazide, Inderal, and rofecoxib, each to be taken once daily. Which conclusion is accurate?
- A. Rofecoxib should not be taken with Ativan.
- B. Lorazepam interferes with the action of Inderal.
- C. The patient should not self-administer medication.
- D. Lorazepam and Ativan are the same drug, so the dose is excessive.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lorazepam and Ativan are generic and trade names for the same drug (D), creating an accidental misuse situation with an excessive dose. The patient needs medication education and help with proper labeling; there is no evidence they cannot self-administer (C). Options A and B are not factually supported.