Nokea
The occupational health nurse is concerned about preventing occupation-related acquired seizures. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Ensure that helmets are worn in appropriate areas.
- B. Implement daily exercise programs for the staff.
- C. Provide healthy foods in the cafeteria.
- D. Encourage employees to wear safety glasses.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Helmets (A) protect against head injuries, a common cause of acquired seizures in occupational settings. Exercise (B), diet (C), and safety glasses (D) do not directly prevent seizures.
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The client is admitted with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia. Which assessment data would the nurse expect to find in this client?
- A. Joint pain of the neck and jaw.
- B. Unconscious grinding of the teeth during sleep.
- C. Sudden severe unilateral facial pain.
- D. Progressive loss of calcium in the nasal septum.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Trigeminal neuralgia causes sudden, severe, unilateral facial pain (C) due to irritation of the trigeminal nerve. Joint pain (A) is unrelated, teeth grinding (B) is bruxism, and calcium loss (D) is not a feature.
Which finding in a client post-stroke indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg
- B. Mild weakness in the right arm
- C. Difficulty finding words
- D. Fatigue after physical therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe hypertension post-stroke increases the risk of hemorrhage or further brain injury, requiring immediate intervention.
Which potential pituitary complication should the nurse assess for in the client diagnosed with a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
- A. Diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM 2).
- B. Seizure activity.
- C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
- D. Cushing's disease.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TBI can damage the pituitary, causing SIADH (C), leading to fluid retention and hyponatremia. DM2 (A) is unrelated, seizures (B) are neurological, and Cushing’s (D) is less common post-TBI.
The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation complains of numbness and tingling of her left arm and leg. The nurse assesses facial drooping on the left side and slight slurring of speech. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Schedule a STAT Magnetic Resonance Imaging of the brain.
- B. Call a Code STROKE.
- C. Notify the health-care provider (HCP).
- D. Have the client swallow a glass of water.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms suggest an acute stroke, requiring immediate activation of a Code STROKE (B) to expedite diagnosis and treatment. MRI (A), notifying HCP (C), and swallowing tests (D) follow protocol activation.
The client diagnosed with a brain abscess has become lethargic and difficult to arouse. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Implement seizure precautions.
- B. Assess the client's neurological status.
- C. Close the drapes and darken the room.
- D. Prepare to administer an IV steroid.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethargy and difficulty arousing suggest neurological deterioration. Assessing neurological status (B) is the first step to determine the cause and guide interventions. Seizure precautions (A), darkening the room (C), and steroids (D) follow assessment.