Nokea
The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria†is:
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Propionibacterium acnes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is commonly known as "flesh-eating bacteria" due to its ability to cause severe tissue destruction and necrotizing fasciitis. Streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins that break down skin and muscle tissues. Staphylococcus aureus (A) can cause skin infections but is not typically associated with necrotizing fasciitis. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is a normal skin flora and rarely causes infections. Propionibacterium acnes (D) is associated with acne and not known for causing tissue destruction. Therefore, the correct choice is Streptococcus pyogenes due to its unique ability to cause severe tissue damage and necrotizing fasciitis.
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Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can lead to foodborne illnesses?
- A. Clostridium botulinum
- B. Salmonella enterica
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin, Salmonella enterica produces salmonella toxin, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins like shiga toxin. These toxins can cause severe foodborne illnesses. Therefore, all of the above bacteria can produce toxins that lead to foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C alone are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce toxins that lead to foodborne illnesses.
Allergy to penicillin is an example of:
- A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Penicillin allergy involves IgE antibodies binding to penicillin.
2. This triggers mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine.
3. Histamine causes allergic symptoms like rash, swelling.
4. This immune response characterizes Type I hypersensitivity reactions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Type II reactions involve antibody-mediated cell destruction, not seen in penicillin allergy.
C: Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition, not typical in penicillin allergy.
D: Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions, not immediate like penicillin allergy.
A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor established symptoms of duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What medication should be administered?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Erythromycin
- C. Monomycin
- D. Chingamin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating lambliosis due to its effectiveness against Giardia lamblia, the parasite causing the infection. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Erythromycin (choice B) is not effective against Giardia lamblia. Monomycin (choice C) and Chingamin (choice D) are not commonly used for treating lambliosis. Therefore, choice A, Metronidazole, is the correct medication for this patient.
What type of bacteria is responsible for the formation of acid in the stomach?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Helicobacter pylori
- C. Bacillus cereus
- D. Clostridium botulinum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is responsible for stomach acid formation by producing an enzyme called urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in stomach pH. Staphylococcus aureus (A) does not cause stomach acid formation. Bacillus cereus (C) and Clostridium botulinum (D) are not involved in stomach acid processes.
Microscopic examination of a smear from a chancre revealed spiral microorganisms. The bacteria were thin and mobile with 8-12 regular coils. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Leptospirosis
- C. Lyme disease
- D. Relapsing fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Syphilis. The spiral microorganisms described are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. The thin and mobile bacteria with 8-12 regular coils match the morphology of Treponema pallidum. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, which are thicker and have hook-like ends, different from the described bacteria. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which has a different appearance than the thin, coiled bacteria in the smear. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which typically have irregular coils, unlike the regular coils seen in the smear.