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Placental circulation is dependent on maternal circu- tions for preventing sudden infant death syndrome? lation. In which maternal circumstances is placental Select all that apply. circulation impeded? Select all that apply.
- A. Position newborns in the prone position to
- B. Hypotension
- C. Pre-eclampsia
- D. Avoid soft bedding or pillows in the newborn's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Hypotension in the mother can result in decreased blood flow to the placenta, affecting placental circulation and oxygen delivery to the fetus, increasing the risk of sudden infant death syndrome.
A: Positioning newborns in the prone position does not directly impede placental circulation.
C: Pre-eclampsia can affect placental circulation due to high blood pressure, but it is not the only maternal condition that can impede placental circulation.
D: Avoiding soft bedding or pillows in the newborn's crib is related to safe sleep practices but does not directly impede placental circulation.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
- A. Fundus firm to palpation
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Increase in lochia
- D. Report of absent breast pain .
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions.
Step 2: Fundus firmness indicates effective contraction of the uterus, helping to control bleeding.
Step 3: A firm fundus also suggests proper involution of the uterus, a crucial process in postpartum recovery.
Step 4: Increase in blood pressure (B) is not a desired effect of methylergonovine and could indicate adverse reactions.
Step 5: Increase in lochia (C) could suggest excessive bleeding or incomplete uterine contraction.
Step 6: Absence of breast pain (D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of methylergonovine in controlling postpartum bleeding.
A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effect should the nurse include?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Breast Tenderness
- D. Chills
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Breast Tenderness. Clomiphene citrate is a medication commonly used to induce ovulation in women experiencing infertility. Breast tenderness is a common adverse effect due to the hormonal changes caused by the medication. Tinnitus (A), urinary frequency (B), and chills (D) are not typically associated with clomiphene citrate use. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with ototoxic medications, urinary frequency may be seen with diuretics, and chills are usually a symptom of infections or fevers.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
- D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min. This is the appropriate intervention because oxytocin is a potent uterotonic agent used for labor induction. By titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min, the nurse can closely monitor and adjust the dose to achieve the desired uterine contractions without causing hyperstimulation. Increasing the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min (A) can lead to rapid and uncontrolled contractions. Maintaining the client in a supine position (B) can decrease blood flow to the placenta. Limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr (D) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration.
A client at 10 weeks' gestation reports frequent nausea. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?
- A. Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day.
- B. Avoid eating before going to bed.
- C. Drink large amounts of fluids with meals.
- D. Eat only three large meals daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Consuming small, frequent meals helps manage nausea by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating smaller meals throughout the day can help stabilize blood sugar levels and provide a constant source of nutrients. This approach is recommended for managing nausea during early pregnancy.
Choice B is incorrect because avoiding eating before bed does not address the underlying issue of nausea during the day.
Choice C is incorrect because drinking large amounts of fluids with meals may worsen nausea by causing bloating and discomfort.
Choice D is incorrect because eating only three large meals daily can lead to periods of fasting in between meals, which may exacerbate nausea.
What component of a health history for a wellness exam includes information on lifestyle factors, such as diet, exercise habits, tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and recreational drug use?
- A. chief complaint/reason for visit
- B. gynecologic history
- C. medications and supplements
- D. social history
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: social history. This component of a health history focuses on lifestyle factors that can impact a person's overall health and well-being. It includes information on diet, exercise habits, tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and recreational drug use. By understanding these factors, healthcare providers can assess potential risks, provide appropriate counseling, and tailor interventions to promote health.
A: Chief complaint/reason for visit is not the correct answer as it pertains to the specific reason why the patient is seeking medical attention.
B: Gynecologic history is focused on a specific aspect of health related to female reproductive health and is not inclusive of overall lifestyle factors.
C: Medications and supplements focus on the use of medications and supplements and do not cover lifestyle factors such as exercise habits or recreational drug use.