Pathophysiology Final Exam

Pathophysiology Final Exam Related

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The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?

  • A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
  • B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
  • C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
  • D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.

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Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.

  • A. The spleen
  • B. Peyer's patches
  • C. Adenoids
  • D. The liver
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.

A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of testosterone gel for the treatment of hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

  • A. Apply the gel after showering, and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
  • B. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
  • C. Apply the gel before bedtime to enhance absorption during sleep.
  • D. Apply the gel to the face and neck for improved results.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply testosterone gel after showering and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This helps prevent the transfer of the gel to others and ensures proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because the gel should not be applied to the genitals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to applying the gel before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as the gel should not be applied to the face and neck for the treatment of hypogonadism.

What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

  • A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
  • B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
  • C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
  • D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.

A female patient is concerned about the side effects of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What common side effect should the nurse explain?

  • A. Weight gain
  • B. Hair loss
  • C. Increased libido
  • D. Decreased energy levels
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to hormonal changes. Patients should be informed about this possibility as part of their treatment plan. Hair loss (Choice B) is not a common side effect of HRT. Increased libido (Choice C) and decreased energy levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with HRT side effects. Therefore, the nurse should focus on discussing weight gain with the patient.

A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

  • A. Hypertrophic scarring
  • B. Dehiscence
  • C. Contracture
  • D. A keloid
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

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