Nokea
A nurse is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
- B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn skin.
- C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment
- D. Measure the newborn's temperature every 8hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn skin. Phototherapy is used to treat jaundice by exposing the baby's skin to light. Lotions or ointments can interfere with the effectiveness of the light therapy. Dressing the newborn in lightweight clothing (choice A) is not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Keeping the newborn supine throughout treatment (choice C) is a general position recommendation and not specific to phototherapy. Measuring the newborn's temperature every 8 hours (choice D) is important but not directly related to phototherapy.
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A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed?
- A. FSH level
- B. Antisperm antibodies
- C. Testicular biopsy
- D. Test of testicular infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antisperm antibodies. In this case, the man's history of vasectomy reversal and normal semen analyses with clumped sperm suggest a possible presence of antisperm antibodies. These antibodies can cause sperm agglutination, affecting fertility. Testing for antisperm antibodies can provide valuable information on potential immune-related infertility issues.
A: FSH level is not the most appropriate test in this scenario as the man's semen analyses were normal, indicating potential issues with sperm-egg interaction rather than hormonal imbalances.
C: Testicular biopsy is invasive and not necessary at this stage when the issue seems to be related to sperm clumping rather than a structural problem within the testes.
D: Test of testicular infection is unlikely as the man's semen analyses were normal, and there are no indications of infection based on the information provided.
During the assessment of a newborn, it is most important for the nurse to report a:
- A. Temperature of 97.7 degrees Fahrenheit
- B. Pale pink, rust-colored stain in the diaper
- C. Heart rate that drops to 120 beats/min
- D. Breathing pattern that is diaphragmatic with sternal retractions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a breathing pattern that is diaphragmatic with sternal retractions indicates respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Staying logical, let's assess the other choices:
A: Temperature of 97.7 degrees Fahrenheit is within the normal range for a newborn and does not indicate an urgent issue.
B: A pale pink, rust-colored stain in the diaper could be due to various factors such as diet and is not an immediate concern.
C: A heart rate dropping to 120 beats/min in a newborn is generally within the normal range and does not signify a critical issue.
The nurse is caring for a client in the third trimester reporting severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Placenta previa.
- B. HELLP syndrome.
- C. Hyperemesis gravidarum.
- D. Abruptio placentae.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: HELLP syndrome. In the third trimester, severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea can indicate HELLP syndrome, a serious pregnancy complication involving hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. The pain and nausea are due to liver and gallbladder involvement. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, not upper quadrant pain. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting but not specific upper quadrant pain. Abruptio placentae presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
The nurse encourages the patient to begin taking folate prior to trying to conceive. Why would the nurse encourage folate intake?
- A. Taking folate increases the chances of conceiving.
- B. Folate helps prevent neural tube defects.
- C. The nurse is preparing the patient to take vitamins during pregnancy.
- D. Folate decreases miscarriage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Folate helps prevent neural tube defects. Folate is crucial for fetal development, particularly in preventing neural tube defects like spina bifida. It should be taken before conception to ensure adequate levels early in pregnancy. A: Taking folate does not directly increase the chances of conceiving. C: The nurse is not preparing the patient to take vitamins during pregnancy, but to prevent birth defects. D: Folate may reduce the risk of certain pregnancy complications but does not directly decrease miscarriage rates.
The nurse is assessing a client in the active stage of labor. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of labor?
- A. The membranes have ruptured.
- B. The cervix is dilated completely.
- C. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.
- D. The spontaneous urge to push is initiated from perineal pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because complete dilation of the cervix marks the transition from the first to the second stage of labor. This indicates that the client is ready to start pushing the baby out. Choice A is incorrect as ruptured membranes can occur in any stage of labor. Choice C is incorrect as clear vaginal fluid expulsion is not a specific indicator of the second stage. Choice D is incorrect as the urge to push can be experienced in the first stage as well.