The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?
- A. Performing ROM exercises during bathing.
- B. Changing the patient's position every two hours.
- C. Suctioning the patient supine and tightly pulling the bed sheets across their feet.
- D. Placing the patient in the prone position for one hour three times a day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.
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An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
- B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
- C. Reposition the client in the Sims' position.
- D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for administering a soap suds enema is the Sims' position, not the left lateral position. The Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and provides the best overall results. By repositioning the client in the Sims' position, the weight is distributed to the anterior ilium, facilitating the enema administration process.
While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?
- A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse breaks eye contact to type notes into the record
- B. The interview process is enhanced with electronic documentation and allows the client to speak at a normal pace
- C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
- D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is a legal obligation of the examining nurse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choosing electronic documentation during an interview may hinder the nurse's ability to observe the client's nonverbal cues. Nonverbal communication, such as body language and facial expressions, plays a crucial role in understanding a client's feelings and needs. Focusing on entering data electronically may lead to missing important nonverbal cues that could provide valuable insights into the client's condition or emotions.
A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?
- A. Hydrogel dressing.
- B. Exudate absorber.
- C. Wet-to-moist dressing.
- D. Transparent adhesive film.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best initial dressing for a stage four pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is a wet-to-moist dressing. This dressing helps to provide moisture, soften necrotic tissue, and prepare the wound bed for healing. It promotes autolytic debridement and can help manage malodorous drainage. Once the necrotic tissue is loosened, other advanced dressings like hydrogel or alginate may be used in the wound bed to facilitate healing.
When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:
- A. Cuff blood pressure.
- B. Arterial pressure.
- C. Pulmonary artery pressure.
- D. Central venous pressure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.
A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?
- A. Gallbladder disease
- B. Liver disease
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Skeletal muscle injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.