Nokea
The patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio. These levels most likely indicate
- A. increased nitrogen intake.
- B. acute kidney injury, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- C. hypovolemia.
- D. fluid resuscitation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The elevated BUN and creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio indicate impaired kidney function. This pattern is commonly seen in acute kidney injury, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN). In ATN, there is damage to the renal tubules leading to decreased excretion of waste products, resulting in elevated BUN and creatinine levels. The normal BUN/creatinine ratio suggests that the impairment is due to renal tubular dysfunction rather than prerenal causes like hypovolemia or postrenal causes like urinary obstruction. Increased nitrogen intake would not produce this specific pattern of results. Fluid resuscitation would likely result in dilution of BUN and creatinine levels, leading to lower values.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?
- A. Carteolol (Ocupress)
- B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)
- C. Pindolol (Visken)
- D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker that primarily targets beta-1 receptors in the heart, making it less likely to exacerbate asthma compared to non-selective beta-blockers like Propranolol (choice B) and Pindolol (choice C). Carteolol (choice A) is also a non-selective beta-blocker and can potentially worsen asthma symptoms. Metoprolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors minimizes bronchoconstriction, making it the safest choice for a client with asthma and high blood pressure.
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
- A. Less than 30 mL/hour
- B. 37 mL/hour
- C. 80 mL/hour
- D. 150 mL/hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) because the minimum acceptable urine output for a patient is approximately 0.5-1 mL/kg/hour. For a 75 kg patient, this equates to 37.5-75 mL/hour. Therefore, an output of 80 mL/hour is within this range and is considered minimally acceptable.
A: Less than 30 mL/hour is incorrect because it is below the recommended range for a 75 kg patient.
B: 37 mL/hour is close to the lower end of the acceptable range, but it is not the minimum acceptable output.
D: 150 mL/hour is above the recommended range and would be considered excessive for a 75 kg patient.
The charge nurse has a Vigileo pulse contour cardiac output monitoring system available for use in the surgical intensive care unit. For which patient isa buisrbe.c oomf /ttehsits device most appropriate?
- A. A patient with a history of aortic insufficiency admitte d with a postoperative myocardial infarction
- B. A mechanically ventilated patient with cardiogenic sho ck being treated with an intraaortic balloon pump
- C. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation having frequent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
- D. A mechanically ventilated patient admitted following repair of an acute bowel obstruction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a mechanically ventilated patient with cardiogenic shock being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump would benefit most from having a Vigileo pulse contour cardiac output monitoring system. This device provides continuous cardiac output monitoring and can help guide hemodynamic management in critically ill patients, especially those with hemodynamic instability like cardiogenic shock. It allows for real-time adjustments of fluid and vasoactive medications to optimize cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Choice A is incorrect because a patient with a history of aortic insufficiency and postoperative myocardial infarction may not require continuous cardiac output monitoring like the patient in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as the patient with atrial fibrillation and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia does not necessarily need cardiac output monitoring. Choice D is also incorrect as a mechanically ventilated patient following repair of an acute bowel obstruction may not require continuous cardiac output monitoring unless there are specific complications.
After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who was extubated in the morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C).
- B. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for sleep apnea whose respiratory rate is 16.
- C. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post percutaneous coronary intervention and needs to void.
- D. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for venous thromboembolism and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 98 seconds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed.
A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT.
B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment.
C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.
Which nursing actions are most important for a patient witahb irab .croigmh/tte srta dial arterial line? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Checking the circulation to the right hand every 2 hour s
- B. Maintaining a pressurized flush solution to the arterial line setup
- C. Monitoring the waveform on the monitor for dampenin g
- D. Restraining all four extremities with soft limb restraint s
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Checking circulation to the right hand is crucial for assessing perfusion and detecting potential complications.
Step 2: Arterial line placement can compromise blood flow, leading to ischemia if circulation is impaired.
Step 3: Monitoring circulation every 2 hours allows for early detection of issues and prompt intervention.
Step 4: This action ensures patient safety and prevents complications.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect as pressurized flush solution can increase the risk of complications.
- Choice C is incorrect as monitoring the waveform is important but not the most critical action.
- Choice D is incorrect as limb restraints can impede circulation and are unnecessary in this scenario.